Tourism Industry in Singapore as the Backbone of Singapores Economy, Term Paper

Essays on Tourism Industry in Singapore as the Backbone of Singapore's Economy, Factors Enabling Singapore Tourism Board's Good Performance Term Paper The paper â€Å"Tourism Industry in Singapore as the Backbone of Singapore’s Economy, Factors Enabling Singapore Tourism Board’s Good Performance† is a  meaty example of term paper on tourism. Asia Pacific region is one of the regions in the world that is well endowed with numerous tourists’ sites. Most of the countries in this region border the Pacific Ocean a factor that enables these countries to have access to other nations on other continents. The region is strategically placed in that one can access it through water, air or even land transport. Therefore, the tourism industry has thrived well in these regions and the destinations are very competitive globally. Some of the countries that are in this part of the world are; Indonesia, Malaysia, India, Singapore, Hong Kong, China, etc (Yoursingapore, 2011:1). These nations have really invested in this industry and indeed, they have received a lot of income for many years. This paper focuses on Singapor e as one of the countries that have a serious investment in the tourism sector. The paper will show statistical information on how the industry is thriving. It will also discuss the reasons why this Singapore is succeeding in the industry and the strategies that have been adopted to increase efficiency in this industry.The tourism industry in Singapore is a major economic sector in the economy of this country. The industry has been stimulated by various factors i. e cultural diversity, geographic location, climatic condition, technological advancement, long rich history, and economic potential. Singapore tourism board (STB) is an agent of destination marketing (Solidiance, 2008:1). The government created this board in 1964 to manage the affairs of the tourism sector. It was initially called the Singapore Tourist promotion board (Yoursingapore, 2011:1). Its main functions were coordinating the efforts of hotels, travel agents and airlines to improve the tourism industry in Singapore. Actually, since its endorsement, much has been realized and the country has moved many steps in the tourism industry.Statistical informationThe number of visitors in Singapore has been ever increasing over the years. This implies that the income from this industry has been growing too. The only interruption that caused the revenue to come down was during the 2008/2009 financial year when there was a global financial crisis. Nevertheless, the situation improved in the preceding years. In the year 2010, income from the tourism industry was estimated to be $18.8 billion, this was a growth of about 49% when compared to the previous 2009 (Yoursingapore, 2011:35). The reports reveal that there is hope for this continued growth due to the prevailing factors that have been put in place by the tourism board to boost this industry.It is amazing that the number of tourists who visits Singapore as tourists are double the population of the residents of Singapore itself. The population is estima ted to be about 5.5 million people. However, reports from the statistical data reveal that in the year 2010, about 11.6 million tourists toured this country (Kumar, 2009: 1). Over 53% of these tourists came from the five biggest markets that are Indonesia about 2.3 million, China about 1.2 million, Malaysia about 1.1 million, Australia 0.8 million and India about 0.75 million tourists. The rest came from other major world markets such as Japan, the Philippines, UK, Thailand, and the US. In 2010, the gazetted hotel room income rated at a total of $1.9 billion registering an increase of 21.8% than in 2009. (Yoursingapore, 2011:35). The average occupancy rate of the rooms was 86%, this was a positive development of about 9.8% more than in 2009. The average room charges were $212 recording an increase of 12.2%, on the other hand, the average income per available room reached $182 registering an increase of about 26.6% than in 2009. From all these statistics, we can note that in 2009, th e overall performance was quite bad. This was attributed to the global economic crisis that was encountered in 2008 (Kumar, 2009: 1).

Social Life Tips for International Students Free Essays

One of the biggest challenges faced by international students and ESL Students, is the obstacle of creating a social life in an unfamiliar place. For many international students, who have travelled from various countries to come to university to study, the thought of making friends can be daunting. However, reaching out and meeting new people is a key part of the university experience and needn’t be something that is feared! Today we look at a few key social life tips you can use to make socialising a little less daunting. We will write a custom essay sample on Social Life Tips for International Students or any similar topic only for you Order Now 1) Always Say Thank You! You’ll be amazed how far smiling and being positive will go. Show people you are helpful, kind and genuine. If someone does something for you, never forget to say thank you, verbally or with a simple note. Small gestures and manners like these go a long way. 2) Use Technology to Connect Sites like Facebook, Twitter and LinkedIn make it easier than ever to connect with others and share your interests. Be sure to stay in touch with any friends you make, and be sure to join in lots of communities and groups to stay in the loop. 3) Get Involved! Sports and hobby clubs are a great way to pursue your own interests with others who share them, allowing you to have fun and meet new people at the same time. Have you considered playing a sportYou can get a workout and form some lifelong bonds with others by seeking out sports teams to play on. 4) Always make time We know it can be tempting to put off socialising, or going out – especially if you are feeling daunted as an ESL student. However, even when you’ve got a ton to do, making time for fun with friends (even if you just meet for dinner) should always be important. It’ll give your brain a rest and let you come back to your work happier and more refreshed. 5) Combine studying with fun University work and having fun don’t have to be mutually exclusive. Study with friends and you’ll get to socialize while learning as well. University can be incredibly stressful so make sure to take a moment to step back now and again and take a breath. It can also be a great time to improve your confidence speaking and writing English. 6) Accept a variety of invitations Take advantage of those moments when people offer you an invitation to do things with them. You could discover a new hobby, meet a great group of people or just have new experiences that open your eyes. It’s easy to get caught up with university, but a big part of the experience is meeting new people, forming friendships and networking with others. Don’t let that fall by the wayside in your academic pursuits. our site offer a range of services that can make it less daunting to be an international student. Or if you ever need to just chat – we’ve a team of professionals at the other end of the phone line who are happy to assist +44 (0)207 060 1205. How to cite Social Life Tips for International Students, Essay examples

Evaluating Practice Through Theories and Models

Question: Describe about the Evaluating Practice Through Theories and Models. Answer: Introduction Nursing is an art and science, playing a vital role in the healthcare delivery system through the collaborative care of individuals from all walks of life. It encompasses the promotion and educating of health, prevention of illnesses, the care of the terminally ill, handicapped and dying people(Hofmann, 2011). The basis of nursing theory is nursing knowledge itself. Nurses should be equipped with extensive skills and knowledge in order to achieve holistic care. Over the years, the healthcare system is constantly evolving to meet the demands and needs of the sick by upgrading and adopting the best current practices available. One of the reasons allowing such to be possible is by the implementation and integration of theories and models to enhance nursing care. In this assignment, the essay shall explore two of the many different types of theories through their relations in nursing practices(Cameron Leventhal, 2013). In doing so, the theories discussed will be introduced via its historical contexts, concepts, application and phenomena and how it directly relates to nursing practice(Dickson, Deatrick, Riegel, 2014). Nursing theory is defined to be a set of concepts and propositions that allows systematic viewing of phenomena by creating specific inter-relationships between them for the purpose of explaining and predicting(Good, 2009). The application of theories to nursing itself serves as a framework to guide the assessment, intervention and evaluation of nursing care to better enhance standardisation of the health services rendered, improve communication and guidance for research and education(Dickson, Deatrick, Riegel, 2014). A nursing model on the other hand is described as a simplified measure to categorize and organize the phenomena to portray the beliefs, values and awareness of skills and knowledge required. It is a structure covering the metaparadigms of nursing. Nursing metaparadigms involves four main domains namely person, environment, health and nursing. The 'Person' refers to the recipient of nursing care. The 'Environment' is the internal and external surroundings that affects the patient. 'Health' is described to be the well-being of the patient and lastly, 'Nursing' is the practice of the art and science focusing on rendering safe, efficient and effective care to the client through knowledge and clinical skills alongside the associated multi-disciplinary team(Alfaro-LeFevre, 2011). The different nursing theories have different emphasis on the different metaparadigms however, all of which share the same goal of achieving optimal health. Theory 1: Orems Contemporary theory in Nursing In Dorothea Orems theory, the researcher focusses on the self-care deficit model in the theory. This is one of the main nursing theories of the modern generations. The theory is one of the most complex with the broadest scope that are presented in nursing theories(Dickson, Deatrick, Riegel, 2014). The theory is about ensuring a healthy lifestyle which is the central focus for any individual. In this regard, governments will spend many funds in the health sector to ensure everyone in the community is fit health wise. Thus, all activities that the individual engages in will be looked upon so as to ensure they are physically and mentally fit. The initiative will look at taking care of small things in life that people will normally overlook. For example, physically care of the food they eat, water they drink and the air they breathe. They also need to take care of their mental health at all times(Jaber, et al., 2010). Orem continues to stress in his theory that in the event an individual fails to take care of their wellbeing, it is imperative to seek medical assistance. This is also referred to as the self-care deficit. Through nursing, an individual is in the ability to overcome their limitations and make certain that they are provided with the assistance to cover a deficit that causes illness and other mental problems(Riegel Dickson, 2010). Orem argues that self-care nursing theory will look at the direction that nurses will take in their practice. If the main aim of a nurse is to assist patients, then they will be called upon to the direction of helping them meet their self-care need(Jurgens, 2014). For this reason, a nurse should understand the proper systems of nursing and ensure that they are applied in practice. Decades ago, the practice of nursing was usually put on a low profile as being a vocational occupation. However, Orems theory puts nursing practice in the lime light and ensures that proper systems in the practice are recognized and put in place. This makes nursing occupations more professional. When one looks at Florence nightingale for example, she was the first person to bring to the profession the need to have a nursing system. From this time, the nursing profession has grown through various phases. However, in the contemporary era, Orem was able to come up with a comprehensive approach on how the nursing profession needs to be managed in order to achieve required results. To the present, the professions is studied just like any other medical discipline(Register Herman, 2009). In turn, nursing has evolved positively over time. According to Orems theory of self-care, people need to be self-reliant and responsible when it comes to taking care of their health as well as the health of their families. The theory enabled people to interact and learn more about their health(Brown, 2011). Thus, people are able to meet and understand developmental and universal self-care as an important factor in primary care. In addition, if a person has the knowledge of their potential health problems, then they can be able to implement some self-care behaviors. In order to discuss this well, Orem divided her theories in to three parts that included, the theory of self-care deficit, theory of self-care and the theory of nursing system. Theory of Self Care Here Orem discusses the practice of activities which a person initiates and performs in his or her own behaviour. These behaviours are meant to take care of their health, life and wellbeing. The self-care agency is the human ability to practice self-care activities. These practices will be conditioned by developmental stages, age, experiences in life, health, social cultural orientation and other available resources. They will also look at therapeutic self-care demand that are the total self-care actions which are to be performed by the individual in a given duration so as to meet different care requisites(Wangberg, 2008). At this the nurse will use related sets of operations, valid methods and other forms of action. Self-care requisites will look at different categories that emphasizes developmental, universal and health deviation self-care requisites. Also Orem stated that the universal self-care requisites are essentials required throughout any individuals life. It ensured the integrity of human structure is maintained and functioning. The requisite were named by Orem as being Activities of daily living. They included areas such as, provision of care that is associated with the process of elimination, maintenance of food, air and water intake, prevention of things that are harmful in the human life, having a balance in activities and break times. There was also time to be alone and to socially interact. Lastly, the function of promoting human functioning(Endsley, 2010). In saying this, the developmental self-care requisites will look at all the developmental processes of human life for instance, from young to old. They will be derived from particular conditions or be linked to a particular event. In times of illness, there is usually health deviation, whereby an ill individual will seek and secure the much needed medical assistance. They will tend to be aware of the effects and results of their medical conditions. Due to the illness, they will need to carry out medical measures as prescribed by the doctor or nurse. Individuals will learn how to manage their illness and modify their own concepts to include their newly found medical conditions(Dickson, Deatrick, Riegel, 2014). The other part of this theory thus will look at when nursing practice becomes important in the persons life. According to Orem, the practice of nursing usually affects an adult who is limited in the provision of self-care or may not perform self-care activities. So as to assist this individual, the nurse practitioner will act for and do these things for the individual, guide them, support and provide and environment which will promote their development. At this a nurse helps the individual meet their future demands. Theory of Nursing In the theory of nursing systems, Orem looked at ways that patients self-care needs were met by the individual themselves. She identified three classifications of nursing systems that will be needed by the patients for self-care requisite. These included the wholly compensatory system, the partially compensatory system and the supportive-education system. Orem recognized that with use of contemporary technology, members of the nursing industry are able to perform their duties well. These technologies include the interpersonal and social were communication is modified to the health status of the patient in relation to their age. The nurse in this case was responsible in maintaining the patients intra-group, interpersonal and inter-group relations to enable them coordinate(Hofmann, 2011). During this time, the nurse needs to maintain a therapeutic relationship in view of the psychosocial modes of health functions and disease. The nurse will conduct assessment of the individual actions, abilities, needs and limitations. The other technology of regulation looked as factors that promote life processes. In this category, the nurse focusses on psychological and physiological needs of the health and disease diagnosis. At this the nurses job was to promote human development and growth and regulate movement and positions in space(Patel, Shafazand, Schaufelberger, Ekman, 2007). These approaches to nursing practice provides a way of judging deficits in self-care and also identify roles of the patient and that of the nurse to attending to the self-care demands. The steps in the approach are also the main components of nursing practice. In this regard, Orem insisted that they need to be well coordinated with social pressures and interpersonal issues surrounding the nursing practice. Nursing process theory: In this model, Orem discusses three parts, the first one is the assessment of the nursing practice. Data is collected to determine concerns which could be addressed by improving the nurse and patient relationship. The following step would be the definition and creation of the nursing care plan. Last but not least, is the discussion and evaluation of the nursing implementation of the care plan. Goals set by the patients should also be taken into consideration(Carlson, Moser, Sebern, Hicks, Roland, 2009). Theory 2: Florence Nightangale Traditional Theory Florence nightingale is famous for an adherence to what is known as the traditional or the virtue theory of nursing care. The traditional concepts are found in the virtue model theory which looks at nursing as a profession that carries within particular moral obligations. The virtue theory holds the moral influence of nursing care on patients and other health care workers. The application of this theory in the practice is characterized by her contribution to the nursing profession(Alfaro-LeFevre, 2011). The theory is best remembered in the Crimeans wars Lady of the Lamp. Her influence in nursing is far reaching in the same regard. Florence Nightingale was very instrumental during the establishment of different procedures and policies that addressed four main aspects of the virtue theory of nursing; promotion of patient welfare to the physical treatment, nursing duty of care, environmental health and nurses acting in the capacity of the role models. The theorist was very active in the innovation of the nursing practice applications in reference to hospital, surgical, clinical and home based care. Virtue Theory The virtue theory of nursing is inspired by services that nurses should be providing in relation to the internal and motivational values for the patient and the nurse practitioner. The theory discusses these aspects by indicating that nurses need to uphold traditional and social morality when providing healthcare. In this regard, they should also look at the practice of nursing in relation to pre-conceived imaginative standards that were originally defined by Florence Nightingale. For example, in 1893 nurses in the United States had nightingale pledge written by Lystra E. Getter, superintendent of the Harper Hospital in Detroit. The pledge provide ethical orientation like other similar pledges which are not celebrated highly in Hippocratic Oath. The virtue theory has for decades impacted on the duty of care among nurses in a very powerful manner as the responsibility rests on the nurse to be responsible and act in ethical manner with carrying on their duties(Cameron Leventhal, 2013) . They needed to do this with little or no supervision from their managers. Her vision in the field of nursing was to ensure they have professional responsibility which is linked to the life and challenges of the nursing profession. In doing this they have to ensure that they uphold their moral duty as well. To embrace this type of responsibility, it called for a sense of moral agency that is linked to those who practice the nursing profession. It is the highest and the most original aim of a nurse according to Nightingale, because nurse have to be responsible persons and ensure little or no suffering of their patients. In addition, the traditional model with regard to the virtue theory emphasizes on specification and maintenance of quality when it comes to the nursing profession(Grant, 2013). The theorists advocated for recommended scientific methods of sanitation during the early days of her career, despite the fact that the setting was of the Crimean war, which was not ideal prototype to practice various environmental measures. Nursing Model With regards to the nursing profession, the traditional model came up with the following processes and actions. Nightingale stated that the roles of the nurse is to maintain pain reduction through administration of medication. They also needed to assist patients and other significant individuals in coping with the medical condition. In doing so, the nurse should also work with the patient and reduce tension that is related to the medical condition. The nurse should also serve as a liaison person between the patient, the doctor and other members of the family or relations. The nurse needs to make sure that the rights and wishes of the patient are respected and adhered to(McElmurry Zabrocki, 2009). This will happen when the nurse creates an environment that a patient will accept his or her condition with privacy and dignity. They will also help the patient in carrying out care with compassion, empathy, skills and professionalism. One of the reasons Nightingale laid down these processes, was to ensure that they are related to her own personal philosophy of practice of nursing and ensuring proper standards of care for the patient. This is because a nurse is within the boundaries of the practice and values are embraced upon. In the same regard, Nightingale also believed that when nurses are able to provide patients with a suitable environment there will be a positive recovery, which underlies in her theory(Alfaro-LeFevre, 2011). This means that she insisted on actions which bring innovative results to the care and treatment of patients. In some of her literature also, she addressed the factors around provision and maintenance of an atmosphere that will be favorable in facilitating the healthy living and healing of the patient process. Some of the factors that ensured a proper nursing and patient care environment were also highlighted by Nightingale as follows; cleaning, proper ventilation, health, proper lighting, feeding and odors. If these factors were well considered patient recovery process will be possible and with the aid of nature. In the nursing profession however, the concern about environment has been paramount from the day professional nursing began in the nineteenth century. The nature of the profession is also witnessed in the present days of nursing care with regard to the environmental control around the patient. This is the kind of relationship that nightingale envisaged between the patient and the nurse environment.(Cameron Leventhal, 2013) It is also important to note that the relationship is only among the devices needed for the development of the nursing professions. However, this can be added in other devices such as collegiate management, risk rating, training programs in the health professi on, reference teams and the matrix support, companion rights and other open visits in the collective nursing care profession. Lastly, relating to Nightingales traditional concept of nursing theory, the main goal of the nursing profession is to provide assistance for the patient. This means that the nurse should be able to maintain the patients vital capacity and meet their needs in all possible ways. In this regard, nightingale showed that nursing professions is not a healing practice as the patient condition and care will depend on the environment and not the kind of treatment received. Here, the focus of nursing profession will be on matters to do with hygiene and other basic characteristics and concepts of their work. Case Study and theory Application: Madam Lee, aged 80 years is widowed and lives alone in a 1-room HDB rental flat in Toa Payoh. She is unemployed and is on public assistance. She has mild dementia, diabetes mellitus, chronic kidney disease, impaired vision and is at risk for fall. She is currently on more than 10 types of medications including, Risperidone. Madam Lee is non-compliant to medication and was admitted to the hospital a few times for hypoglycaemia. She has poor personal hygiene and her apartment is dirty and cluttered. She keeps leftover food in her refrigerator that has turned mouldy and rancid Madam Lee attends the Dementia Day Centre just a block away at irregular intervals. She is aggressive and does not get along with others at the centre. The day centre has committed staffs who have been trying to coax her to attend the sessions more regularly but to no avail.She is referred to the community case manager for further management. The case manager feels is it safer for Madam Lee to be admitted to a nur sing home but she adamantly refuses. Application of Orems Theory In view of patients condition, there will be no chances or guarantees that patient can take care of herself independently which could be applied to Orems theory. Requires home nursing services or a nursing home where her ADLs will be taken care of. A better and cleaner environment will be available that would not make her more ill. May improve patients violence issues when the patient is cared for properly. Moods and behaviours can be improved as well. The case study clearly indicates a patient with a variety of chronic illnesses and is unable to care of herself. This is because all the elements of self-care have been manifested by the patient and can be used across the patients conditions during the processes of maintaining her health. In fact, the theory of self-care was emanated from taking care of adults with dementia and other chronic illnesses. The clinical experience of the above case study shows that challenge that the patient has in caring for herself with her decision needs to be in line with the needs that have been dictated in her current condition.(Carlson, Moser, Sebern, Hicks, Roland, 2009) The clinician should ensure that there is self-care maintenance by the patient. This will look at ensuring the patient adheres to Dementia classes as they will be important to ensure her wellbeing and preserve her health. The clinical visits will also ensure that there is proper monitoring of her clinical conditions both emotiona lly and physically. In her case, self-care will not only look at self-improvement but will also look at different behaviors that could put her life at risk like smoking, eating healthy and coping with old age, given that she is 80 years old with a couple of chronic illnesses(Dickson, Deatrick, Riegel, 2014). At this, the patient needs to be assigned a clinical nurse that will ensure she is able to take her medication as needed. The activities will be imposed mostly by the nurses since she lives alone. The patient will also need to be made to understand that the therapy is important in ensuring that she meets her own medical care goals. This means that the importance of self-care is ensuring the patient has benefited from the reflection about the importance of her behavior and ensuring that she is able to perform the behavior. One of them being to attend the dementia lessons and an on-going evaluation of the effectiveness and benefits of the activities. To add on the above, adaptation of the self-care behavior should also accommodate the changing lifestyle of the patient. There is need to ensure adherence as a very important part of self-care maintenance. The patient needs to adhere to therapies as they form a great part of the outcome of medication. During this time, the main goal for the health care provider or the nurse will be to work in collaboration with the patient. They should negotiate the adoption of as many self-care behaviors as they can be tolerated by the patient and accepted(Dickson, Deatrick, Riegel, 2014). At this, the health provider needs to put more emphasis on these therapies with the best evidence in supporting them. This can be done well through self-care monitoring. During monitoring, the health care provider will assign a task that will conduct a process of routine vigilance of the patient adherence to self-care behavior. They will also constantly conduct checkups on how the patient is responding to medication and therapy and other Norman human behavior. They will for example monitor the patients memory, weight, breathing and acidity level to understand the gains and losses. Other patients will visit the dentist to monitor success or avoid other caries. Monitoring constant is important as it will reveal whether a care has occurred or not(Good, 2009). This can be related to the diagnosed chronic illness or the patient behavior in adhering to dementia classes or taking medication and exercise. Ways this can be recognized is through som atic awareness or sensitivity to physical sensations and bodily activity. References Alfaro-LeFevre, R. (2011). Critical thinking and clinical judgement: A practical approach to outcome-focused thinking. . Journal of Nursing Education, 10-16. Brown, C. (2011). Nurses role in health promotions in school. . Canadian nurse, 107, 20-23. Cameron, L., Leventhal, H. (2013). The self-regulation of health and illness behavior. . London: Routledge. Carlson, B. R., Moser, D., Sebern, M., Hicks, F., Roland, V. (2009). Psychometric testing of the self-care of heart failure . Index. J Card Fail , 10(4), 350-360. CL, C. L., Lung, M. (2013). General principles of asthma management: symptom monitoring. . The Nursing clinics of North America. , 38(4), 585-596. Dickson, V., Deatrick, J., Riegel, B. (2014). A typology of chronic illness self-care management in non-elders. Eur J Cardiovasc Nurs., 7(3), 171-181. Endsley, M. (2010). The role of situation awareness in naturalistic decision making. In Naturalistic decision making: (p. 436). NY: Lawrence Erlbaum Associates. Good, M. (2009). middle-range theory of acute pain management: use in research. . Nurs Outlook, 46(7), 120-124. Grant, R. (2013). Nursing Preceptors speaks out. Journal or professional nursing, 29(1), 30-38. Hofmann, K. (2011). Decision making in clinical nursing. . Journal of Advanced Nursing, 53-62. J.L.Donovan, Blake, D. (2012). Patient non-compliance: deviance or reasoned decision-making? Soc Sci Med. , 34(5), 507-513. Jaarsma, T., Stromberg, A., Martensson, J., Dracup, K. (2012). Development and testing of the European Heart Failure Self-Care Behaviour Scale. . European Journal of Heart Failure. , 6(2), 363-370. Jaber, W., Lennon, R., Mathew, V., Holmes, D., Lerman, A., Rihal, C. (2010). Application of evidence-based medical therapy is associated with improved outcomes after percutaneous coronary intervention and is a valid quality indicator. . Journal of the American College of Cardiology, 46(8), 1473-1478. Jurgens, C. (2014). Somatic awareness, uncertainty, and delay in care-seeking in acute heart failure. Res Nurs Health., 31(3), 74-86. Malmstrom, R., Roine, R., Heikkila, A. (2008). Cost analysis and health-related quality of life of home and self-care satellite haemodialysis. . Nephrology, dialysis, transplantation : official publication of the European Dialysis and Transplant Association - EEuropean Renal Association. , 23(9), 1990-1996. McElmurry, B., Zabrocki, E. (2009). Ethical concerns in caring for older women in the community. The Nursing clinics of North America, 24(4), 1041-1050. Patel, H., Shafazand, M., Schaufelberger, M., Ekman, I. (2007). Reasons for seeking acute care in chronic heart failure. . Eur J Heart Fail, 9(7), 702-708. Register, M., Herman, J. (2009). middle range theory for generative quality of life for the elderly. ANS Adv Nurs Sci. , 29(6), 340-350. Riegel, B., Dickson, V. (2010). A situation-specific theory of heart failure self-care. J Cardiovasc Nurs., 23(5), 190-196. Wangberg, S. (2008). An Internet-based diabetes self-care intervention tailored to self-efficacy. Health education research. , 23(1), 170-179.

Introduction of Information Security Systems Cis4385 Essay Example

Introduction of Information Security Systems Cis4385 Essay 1. Which if the following IPv6 address type is assigned to multiple interfaces but packets will only be delivered to one? a. Multicast b. Anycast c. Unicast d. Broadcast Grade:1 User Responses:b. Anycast Feedback:a. An anycast address is assigned to a group of interfaces on multiple nodes. Packets are delivered to the â€Å"first† interface only. 2. Routers operate at which OSI layer? a. Physical b. Transport c. Network d. Session Grade:1 User Responses:c. Network Feedback:a. Routers operate at the network layer making routing decisions based on IP addresses. 3. Which of the following is NOT a private IPv4 address? Choose all that apply. a. 192. 168. 5. 60 b. 172. 25. 6. 4 c. 10. 0. 6. 5 d. 26. 68. 6. 1 Grade:1 User Responses:d. 26. 68. 6. 1 Feedback:a. The private IP address ranges are as follows. IP Class Assigned Range Class A 10. 0. 0. 0-10. 255. 255. 255 Class B 172. 16. 0. 0-172. 31. 255. 255 Class C 192. 168. 0. 0-192. 168. 255. 255 4. What is a server that evaluates Internet requests from LAN devices against a set called? a. Proxy b. Firewall c. Load balancer d. NAT server Grade:1 User Responses:a. Proxy Feedback:a. A server that evaluates Internet requests from LAN devices against a set of rules is called a proxy server. NAT servers perform private to public address translation; load balancers manage traffic between cluster hosts; and a firewall filters traffic based on access control lists. 5. Which type of device maintains awareness of the status of connections, thereby preventing IP spoofing attacks? a. Stateless packet filtering firewall b. Stateful packet filtering firewall c. NAT filter d. Application-level gateway Grade:1 User Responses:b. Stateful packet filtering firewall Feedback:a. A stateful packet filtering firewall is one that monitors the state of each connection by examining the header of each packet. We will write a custom essay sample on Introduction of Information Security Systems Cis4385 specifically for you for only $16.38 $13.9/page Order now We will write a custom essay sample on Introduction of Information Security Systems Cis4385 specifically for you FOR ONLY $16.38 $13.9/page Hire Writer We will write a custom essay sample on Introduction of Information Security Systems Cis4385 specifically for you FOR ONLY $16.38 $13.9/page Hire Writer A stateless packet filtering firewall does not do this. NAT filters perform only private-to-public address translation. An application-level gateway provides protection to a specific application such as FTP. 6. Which of the following firewall services works at the session layer of the OSI model? a. Application layer gateway b. Stateful filtering c. NAT d. Circuit-level gateway Grade:0 User Responses:c. NAT Feedback:a. Circuit-level gateways work at the Session Layer of the OSI model and apply security mechanisms when a TCP or UDP connection is established; they act as a go between for the Transport and Application Layers in TCP/IP. After the connection has been made, packets can flow between the hosts without further checking. Circuit-level gateways hide information about the private network, but they do not filter individual packets. 7. Which of the following are the two main functions of a proxy server? a. Caching of web pages b. NAT c. Domain authentication d. DHCP Grade:1 User Responses:a. Caching of web pages,c. Domain authentication Feedback:a. A proxy server secures a network by keeping machines behind it anonymous; it does this through the use of NAT. It also improves web performance by caching web pages from servers on the Internet for a set amount of time. b. A proxy server secures a network by keeping machines behind it anonymous; it does this through the use of NAT. It also improves web performance by caching web pages from servers on the Internet for a set amount of time. 8. Which of the following devices can detect but not prevent attacks across the entire network? a. NIDS b. Host-based IDS c. NIP S d. Protocol Analyzer Grade:1 User Responses:a. NIDS Feedback:a. Network Intrusion Detection Systems (NIDS) detect but do not prevent attacks across the entire network. Host-based IDS can protect only the host on which it is installed. Network Intrusion Protection Systems (NIPS) can detect and prevent attacks across the entire network. A Protocol Analyzer can capture traffic but not act upon it. 9. When a NIPs blocks legitimate traffic, what is it known as? a. False negative b. True negative c. False positive d. True positive Grade:1 User Responses:c. False positive Feedback:a. A blocking of traffic is a positive action, and when it is in response to legitimate traffic, it is considered a false action; thus it is a false positive. A false negative would be when an action is NOT taken on traffic that is not legitimate. The other two options are normal actions; a true negative is the allowing of legitimate traffic, whereas a true positive is the blocking of illegitimate traffic. 10. Which of the following types of NIPS reacts to actions that deviate from a baseline? a. Signature-based b. Heuristic c. Anomaly-based d. Bit blocker Grade:1 User Responses:c. Anomaly-based Feedback:a. Anomaly-based NIPS recognizes traffic that is unusual and reports it. Signature-based NIPs are configured with the signatures of attacks. Heuristics looks for patterns in the traffic, whereas bit blocker is a not a type of NIPs. 1. Which of the following systems attempt to stop the leakage of confidential data, often concentrating on communications? a. DHCP b. DNS c. DLP d. STP Grade:1 User Responses:c. DLP Feedback:a. Data loss prevention (DLP) systems are designed to protect data by way of content inspection. They are meant to stop the leakage of confidential data, often concentrating on communications. As such, they are often also referred to as data leak prevention (DLP) devices, information leak prevention (ILP) devices, and extrusion prevention systems. Regardless, they are intended to be used to keep data from leaking past a computer system or network and into unwanted hands. 12. When a company buys fire insurance they are ____________ risk. a. accepting b. avoiding c. transferring d. reducing Grade:1 User Responses:c. transferring Feedback:a. It is possible to transfer some risk to a third-party. An example of risk transference (also known as risk sharing) would be an organization that purchases insurance for a group of servers in a datacenter. The organization still takes on the risk of losing data in the case of server failure, theft, and disaster, but transfers the risk of losing the money those servers are worth in the case they are lost. 13. Which of the following processes block external files that use JavaScript or images from loading into the browser? a. URL filtering b. Content filtering c. Malware inspection d. Blacklists Grade:1 User Responses:b. Content filtering Feedback:a. Content filtering is a process that blocks external files that use JavaScript or images from loading into the browser. URL filtering blocks pages based on the URL. Malware inspection looks for malware based on a signature file, and blacklists are items to be denied by spam filters. 14. Which of the following actions should NOT be taken for the default account on a network device? a. Delete it. b. Change the password. c. Disable it. d. Leave it as is. Grade:1 User Responses:d. Leave it as is. Feedback:a. The default account has a well-known username and password, so it should be either deleted or disabled, or at a minimum its password should be changed. 15. Firewall rules are typically based in all but which of the following? a. IP addresses b. MAC addresses c. Port numbers . Content type Grade:1 User Responses:d. Content type Feedback:a. Firewall rules are typically based on IP addresses, MAC addresses, or port numbers, but they cannot filter for content. 16. Which of the following is the target of a double tagging attack? a. VPNs b. VLANs c. Collision domains d. DMZs Grade:1 User Responses:b. VLANs Feedback:a. A double tagging attack can enabl e the attacker to view traffic from multiple VLANs. 17. A network created to allow access to resources from the Internet, while maintaining separation from the internal network is called a ______? a. VPN b. VLAN c. Honeypot d. DMZ Grade:1 User Responses:d. DMZ Feedback:a. When talking about computer security, a Demilitarized Zone (DMZ) is a special area of the network (sometimes referred to as a subnetwork) that houses servers which host information accessed by clients or other networks on the Internet, but which does not allow access to the internal network. 18. How can access to the remote management of a router be protected? a. Content filtering b. ACLs c. Firewalls d. IPS Grade:0 User Responses:c. Firewalls Feedback:a. Remote access to a router is usually done via Telnet or SSH. The port used (vty line) can be secured using an access control list. The other options can all be used to help protect routers but not access the remote management function. 19. You need to allow access from your network to all web sites. What port numbers should be opened in the firewall? Choose all that apply. a. 25 b. 443 c. 80 d. 119 e. 22 f. 23 Grade:1 User Responses:c. 80 Feedback:a. HTTP and HTTPS are the two services you need to allow access to use ports 80 and 443 respectively. 20. Which of the following mitigation techniques can prevent MAC flooding? a. Secure VLANs b. Prevent ICMP responses c. 802. 1x d. 802. 1q Grade:1 User Responses:c. 802. 1x Feedback:a. MAC flooding, which involves overwhelming the memory of the switch with MAC frames sourced from different MAC addresses, can be prevented by requiring authentication on each port through 802. 1x. Secure VLANs cannot prevent this because the frames don’t need to enter a VLAN to cause the problem. ICMP is at Layer 3, these frames are at Layer 2, and 802. 1q is a VLAN tagging protocol that does not prevent frames from entering the switch through access ports. 21. Which of the following attacks cannot be mitigated with a flood guard? a. Smurf attack b. Fraggle c. Teardrop attack d. Session theft Grade:1 User Responses:d. Session theft Feedback:a. The smurf, fraggle, and teardrop attacks all involve sending a flood of packets to a device, using different types of malformed packets. A session theft attack is when a session cookie is stolen and used to authenticate to a server. 22. Loop protection is designed to address problems that occur with which device? a. Switch b. Hub c. Router d. Firewall Grade:0 User Responses:b. Hub Feedback:a. Loops occur when switches have redundant connections causing a loop. Loop guard (or loop protection) can prevent loops on the switch. 23. When creating an ACL which of the following statements is NOT true? a. The order of the rules is important for proper functioning b. You must include a deny all statement at the end of the rule set for proper functioning c. The more specific rules should be placed at the beginning of the rule list d. Once created, the ACL must be applied to an interface Grade:1 User Responses:b. You must include a deny all statement at the end of the rule set for proper functioning Feedback:a. There is an implied deny all statement at the end of each ACL and it is not required to include one. 24. Which of the following is an example of insecure network bridging in a LAN? a. Laptop connected to a hotspot and an ad hoc network . Laptop connected to a wireless network and the wired LAN at the same time c. Router connected to two subnets d. PC connected with two NIC to the same LAN Grade:1 User Responses:b. Laptop connected to a wireless network and the wired LAN at the same time Feedback:a. When a laptop connects to a wireless network and the wired LAN at the same time, it can create a bridge between the two allowing access to the LAN. The other scenarios do not create a security problem for the LAN. 25. When the administrator creates a rule on the firewall to prevent FTP traffic, this is a type of __________rule. . implicit deny b. implicit allow c. explicit deny d. explicit allow Grade:1 User Responses:c. explicit deny Feedback:a. When traffic is specified to be prevented, it is an explicit deny. When it is denied simply because it was not specifically allowed, that is an implicit deny. 26. Network Access Control (NAC) is an example of_______________. a. role-based management b. rules-based management c. port-based access d. application layer filtering Grade:1 User Responses:b. rules-based management Feedback:a. Network Access Control (NAC) uses rules by which connections to a network are governed. Computers attempting to connect to a network are denied access unless they comply with rules including levels of antivirus protection, system updates, and so on—effectively weeding out those who would perpetuate malicious attacks. 27. What type of device is required for communication between VLANs? a. Hub b. Switch c. Router d. Firewall Grade:1 User Responses:c. Router Feedback:a. Hosts in different VLANs are also in different subnets and routing must be performed for them to communicate. 28. Which of the following would be least likely to be placed in the DMZ? a. Web server b. DNS server c. Domain controller d. FTP server Grade:1 User Responses:c. Domain controller Feedback:a. All the options except a domain controller are often placed in the DMZ so they are accessible to the outside world. A DC however is sensitive and should NOT be placed in the DMZ. 29. Subnetting a network creates segmentation at which layer of the OSI model? a. Layer 1 b. Layer 2 c. Layer 3 d. Layer 4 Grade:1 User Responses:c. Layer 3 Feedback:a. Subnetting a network creates segmentation using IP addresses, which is Layer 3. 30. What service is required to represent multiple private IP addresses with a single public IP address? a. NAT b. DHCP c. DNS d. DLP Grade:0 User Responses:a. NAT Feedback:a. Network Address Translation (NAT) is required to represent multiple private IP addresses with a single public IP address. The specific form of NAT required to represent multiple private IP addresses with a single public IP address is called Port Address Translation (PAT). 31. Which of the following is NOT a remote access protocol? a. MS-CHAP b. CHAP c. LDAP d. PAP Grade:1 User Responses:c. LDAP Feedback:a. Lightweight Directory Access Protocol is used for accessing directory services such as Active Directory. It is not used in remote access. All other options are remote access protocols. 2. Which of the following devices are susceptible to war dialing? a. Modems b. Firewalls c. Content filters d. Load balancers Grade:0 User Responses:a. Modems Feedback:a. Any devices that accept phone calls such as modems or PBX systems with remote phone access are susceptible to war dialing. 33. When computers are not allowed to connect to the network without proper security patches and virus updates, the network is using a form of _____________. a. PAT b. DAC c. NAC d. DMZ Grade:0 User Responses:d. DMZ Feedback:a. Network Access Control (NAC) uses rules by which connections to a network are governed. Computers attempting to connect to a network are denied access unless they comply with rules including levels of antivirus protection, system updates, and so on—effectively weeding out those who would perpetuate malicious attacks. 34. Which of the following items do not need to be changed on a new router to ensure secure router management? a. IP address b. Administrator name c. Administrator password d. IOS version Grade:1 User Responses:d. IOS version Feedback:a. All the options except the IOS version can be set to defaults from the factory and should be changed because they are well known. 5. Which of the following is NOT an example of cloud computing? a. SaaS b. IaaS c. PaaS d. BaaS Grade:1 User Responses:d. BaaS Feedback:a. Software as a Service (SaaS), Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS), and Platform as a Service (PaaS) are all forms of cloud computing. 36. On which concept is cloud computing based? a. load balancing b. virtualization c. RAID d. DLP Grade:1 User Responses :b. virtualization Feedback:a. All forms of cloud computing use virtualization. 37. A three legged perimeter is a form of ______________. a. VPN b. DMZ c. NAT d. ACL Grade:1 User Responses:b. DMZ Feedback:a. A three-legged perimeter is a firewall or server with three NICs: one pointed to the LAN, one to the Internet, and one to the DMZ. 38. Which of the following is NOT a benefit provided by subnetting? a. It increases security by compartmentalizing the network. b. It is a more efficient use of IP address space. c. It reduces broadcast traffic and collisions. d. It eases administration of the network. Grade:1 User Responses:d. It eases administration of the network. Feedback:a. Subnetting provides a number of benefits but easing administration is not one of them. 39. Which of the following is the result of implementing VLANs? . Larger broadcast domains b. Smaller collision domains c. Smaller broadcast domains d. Larger collision domains Grade:1 User Responses:c. Smaller broadcast domains Feedback:a. VLANs break up the network into subnets and as such result in smaller broadcast domains. 40. Which of the following services helps conserve public IP addresses? a. NAT b. DHCP c. DNS d. SLIP Grade:0 User Responses:c. DNS Feedback:a. By allowing the use of private IP addresses inside each network and by representing those groups of private IP addresses with a single public IP address, public IP addresses are conserved by NAT. 41. Which of the following remote access protocols are used with VPNs? Choose all that apply. a. PPTP b. PPP c. L2TP d. SLIP Grade:1 User Responses:c. L2TP,d. SLIP Feedback:a. Point-to-Point Tunneling Protocol (PPTP) and Layer Two Tunneling protocol (L2TP) are used with VPNs. PPP and SLIP are used for dial-up. /b. Point-to-Point Tunneling Protocol (PPTP) and Layer Two Tunneling protocol (L2TP) are used with VPNs. PPP and SLIP are used for dial-up. 42. Which of the following security protocols operates at the network layer of the OSI model? a. IPSec b. SSH c. SSL d. TLS Grade:1 User Responses:a. IPSec Feedback:a. One of the key features of IPSec is its operation at the network layer enabling it to protect any type of communication operating at the upper layers of the OSI model. 43. Which of the following are components of SNMP? Choose all that apply. a. NMS b. IPSec c. Agent d. CARP Grade:1 User Responses:b. IPSec,c. Agent Feedback:a. The three components of SNMP are a network management system (NMS), agent software, and the managed device, where the agent software operates. /b. The three components of SNMP are a network management system (NMS), agent software, and the managed device, where the agent software operates. 44. SSL is designed as a secure replacement for which of the following? a. PPP b. Telnet c. TLS d. SSH Grade:0 User Responses:d. SSH Feedback:a. SSL is designed as a secure replacement for Telnet, which transmits in clear text. 45. Which of the following protocols supersedes SSL? a. SSH b. TLS c. S/MIME d. EAP Grade:0 User Responses:a. SSH Feedback:a. TLS 1. 2, the latest version, is used when establishing an HTTPS connection and supersedes SSLv3. 46. The operation of which of the following protocols makes the SYN flood attack possible? a. IPX/SPX b. AppleTalk c. TCP/IP d. RIP Grade:1 User Responses:c. TCP/IP Feedback:a. TCP/IP uses a three-way handshake for its connection, and the SYN flood attack attempts to take advantage of the operation of this connection operation. 47. Which of the following provides secure web access? a. SFTP b. HTTP c. HTTPS d. SSH Grade:1 User Responses:c. HTTPS Feedback:a. HTTPS uses port 443 and is the standard for secure web access. 48. SCP is a secure copy protocol that uses the port of which other protocol for transfers? a. HTTPS b. SSH c. SSL d. FTPS Grade:0 User Responses:d. FTPS Feedback:a. Secure copy (SCP) is another example of a protocol that uses another protocol (and its corresponding port). It uses SSH and ultimately uses port 22 to transfer data. 49. Which of the following protocols is abused when a ping flood occurs? a. SNMP b. IGMP c. ICMP d. EIGRP Grade:0 User Responses:a. SNMP Feedback:a. Ping floods use ICMP echo request packets aimed at the target. 50. Which of the following security mechanisms are built into IPv6? a. IPSec b. SSL c. HTTPS d. EAP Grade:1 User Responses:a. IPSec Feedback:a. IPv6 has IPSec support built in. 51. What method is used by SSL to obtain and validate certificates? a. SPI b. PKI c. TLS d. EAP Grade:1 User Responses:b. PKI Feedback:a. SSL and TLS use a public Key Infrastructure (PKI) to obtain and validate certificates. 52. What port number does FTPS use to protect the transmission? a. 21 b. 88 c. 443 d. 445 Grade:0 User Responses:a. 21 Feedback:a. FTPS uses SSL or TLS over port 443 to make a secure connection. 53. Which of the following protocols uses port 22, normally used by SSH, to make a secure connection? a. FTPS b. SCP c. SFTP d. SSL Grade:0 User Responses:b. SCP Feedback:a. Secure FTP (SFTP) uses port 22, the port for SSH, which is why it is also sometimes called SSH FTP. 54. Which protocol uses ports 161 and 162? a. SMTP b. IMAP4 . SNMP d. IGMP Grade:0 User Responses:a. SMTP Feedback:a. SNMP is used to collect information about and make changes to devices on the network. It uses ports 161 and 162. 55. Which protocol uses the same port as HTTPS? a. SCP b. FTPS c. SFTP d. IMAP4 Grade:0 User Responses:c. SFTP Feedback:a. FTP secure (FTPS) uses port 443, which is also used by HTTPS. 56. Which protocol uses po rt 69? a. SCP b. FTPS c. TFTP d. IMAP4 Grade:1 User Responses:c. TFTP Feedback:a. TFTP uses port 69. 57. What port number is used by Telnet? a. 80 b. 443 c. 21 d. 23 Grade:1 User Responses:d. 23 Feedback:a. Port 23 is used by Telnet. 8. Which port does HTTP use? a. 80 b. 443 c. 21 d. 23 Grade:0 User Responses:b. 443 Feedback:a. HTTP uses port 80. 59. Which port does SCP use to transfer data? a. 80 b. 22 c. 21 d. 23 Grade:0 User Responses:c. 21 Feedback:a. SCP uses SSH and thus port 22 to transfer data. 60. Which protocol uses port 443? a. HTTPS b. FTPS c. TFTP d. IMAP4 Grade:1 User Responses:a. HTTPS Feedback:a. HTTPS uses port 443. 61. Which two protocols use port 22? a. HTTPS b. FTPS c. SSH d. SCP Grade:2 User Responses:c. SSH,d. SCP Feedback:a. SCP uses SSH and thus port 22 to transfer data, so both protocols use this port. b. SCP uses SSH and thus port 22 to transfer data, so both protocols use this port. 62. Which ports does the NetBIOS protocol uses? Choose all that apply. a. 138 b. 139 c. 137 d. 140 Grade:3 User Responses:a. 138,b. 139,c. 137 Feedback:a. The NetBIOS protocol uses ports 137 through 139. /b. The NetBIOS protocol uses ports 137 through 139. /c. The NetBIOS protocol uses ports 137 through 139. 63. What protocol uses port 53? a. HTTPS b. FTPS c. SSH d. DNS Grade:0 User Responses:b. FTPS Feedback:a. DNS uses port 53. 64. Which port number does RDP use? a. 3389 b. 1723 c. 1701 d. 140 Grade:1 User Responses:a. 3389 Feedback:a. Port 3389 is used for Remote Desktop (RDP). 65. What protocol uses port 25? a. HTTPS b. SMTP c. SSH d. DNS Grade:1 User Responses:b. SMTP Feedback:a. SMTP uses port 25. 66. Which of the following statements is true regarding WPA and WPA2? (Choose all that apply. ) a. WPA uses 256-bit encryption. b. WPA2 uses 128-bit encryption. c. WPA uses TKIP. d. WPA2 uses AES. Grade:2 User Responses:c. WPA uses TKIP. ,d. WPA2 uses AES. Feedback:a. WPA uses TKIP 128-bit encryption, whereas WPA2 uses 256-bit AES. /b. WPA uses TKIP 128-bit encryption, whereas WPA2 uses 256-bit AES. 67. Which statement is NOT true with regard to WPA2? a. Uses AES encryption b. Meets requirements of 802. 11i c. Uses TKIP encryption d. Uses 256 bit encryption Grade:1 User Responses:c. Uses TKIP encryption Feedback:a. WPA uses TKIP but WPA2 uses AES. 68. Which of the following is the security provided in the original 802. 11 standard? a. WPA b. WPA2 c. WEP d. CCMP Grade:1 User Responses:c. WEP Feedback:a. Wired Equivalent Privacy (WEP) is the security provided in the original 802. 11 standard. 69. What is the authentication system that calls for a supplicant, authenticator, and authentication server called? . EAP b. WPA c. WPA2 d. WEP Grade:1 User Responses:a. EAP Feedback:a. Extensible Authentication Protocol (EAP) is an authentication system that calls for a supplicant, authenticator, and authentication server. 70. Which of the following implementations of EAP requires certificates on the client and the server? a. EAP-FAST b. EAP-TTLS c. PEAP d. EAP-TLS Grade:1 User Responses:d. EAP- TLS Feedback:a. EAP-TLS requires certificates on the client and the server. 71. Which of the following versions of EAP is Cisco proprietary? a. LEAP b. EAP-TTLS c. PEAP d. EAP-TLS Grade:1 User Responses:a. LEAP Feedback:a. Lightweight EAP is a version that works only on Cisco devices unless the device is from a partner that participates in the Cisco Compatible Extensions program. 72. Why are MAC filters not effective in preventing access to the WLAN? a. The MAC addresses of allowed devices are contained in the beacon frames sent by the AP. b. The MAC addresses of allowed devices are contained in any frames sent by the allowed device. c. The administrative effort to maintain the MAC list is prohibitive. d. If the user changes his MAC address, the filter will disallow entry. Grade:1 User Responses:b. The MAC addresses of allowed devices are contained in any frames sent by the allowed device. Feedback:a. The MAC addresses of allowed devices are contained in any frames sent by the allowed device and can be seen by those using wireless protocol analyzers. The MAC address can then be spoofed for entry. 73. Which of the following frame types contain the SSID? (Choose all that apply. ) a. Beacon frames b. Data frames c. Association frames d. Authentication frames Grade:3 User Responses:b. Data frames,c. Association frames,d. Authentication frames Feedback:a. The SSID is contained in all frames. If the SSID is hidden, it is removed only from the beacon frames. /b. The SSID is contained in all frames. If the SSID is hidden, it is removed only from the beacon frames. /c. The SSID is contained in all frames. If the SSID is hidden, it is removed only from the beacon frames. 74. TKIP was designed to correct the shortcomings of which of the following? a. EAP b. WPA c. WEP d. WPA2 Grade:1 User Responses:c. WEP Feedback:a. TKIP was designed to correct the shortcomings of WEP. It was a temporary solution for use until the 802. 1x standard was completed. 75. Which of the following encryption protocols is used with WPA2? . TKIP b. CCMP c. WEP d. DES Grade:1 User Responses:b. CCMP Feedback:a. Counter Mode with Cipher Block Chaining Message Authentication Code Protocol (CCMP) is the encryption protocol used with WPA2. It addresses the vulnerabilities of TKIP and meets requirements of IEEE 802. 11i. 76. Which antenna types would be best for shaping the signal away from the front of the bu ilding for security purposes while still providing coverage in the other part of the building? (Choose all that apply. ) a. Yagi b. Omni c. Parabolic dish d. Semidirectional Grade:2 User Responses:a. Yagi,d. Semidirectional Feedback:a. You can use a yagi antenna, which is a type of semidirectional antenna, to shape the coverage area as called for in the scenario. /b. You can use a yagi antenna, which is a type of semidirectional antenna, to shape the coverage area as called for in the scenario. 77. How can you keep the existing radiation pattern of the antenna while reducing the coverage area? a. Increase the power of the transmitter. b. Decrease the power of the transmitter. c. Change the polarity of the antenna. d. Remove one of the attenuators from the line. Grade:1 User Responses:b. Decrease the power of the transmitter. Feedback:a. Reducing the power level maintains the radiation pattern while making the area of radiation smaller. 78. What organization created WPA? a. FCC b. Wi-Fi Alliance c. IEEE d. ISO Grade:1 User Responses:b. Wi-Fi Alliance Feedback:a. The Wi-Fi Alliance created WPA to address the weaknesses of WEP. 79. To which standard is WPA2 designed to adhere? a. 802. 16 b. 802. 11f c. 802. 11i d. 802. 11e Grade:1 User Responses:c. 802. 11i Feedback:a. WPA2 is designed to adhere to the 802. 11i security standard. 80. Which of the following is the weakest form of security? a. TKIP b. WPA c. WEP d. EAP Grade:1 User Responses:c. WEP Feedback:a. WEP is the weakest form of security. It has been cracked and is not suitable for Enterprise WLANs. 81. A ______________ attack intercepts all data between a client and a server. a. DDoS b. Man-in-the-middle c. Replay d. Smurf Grade:1 User Responses:b. Man-in-the-middle Feedback:a. Man-in-the-middle is a type of active interception. If successful, all communications now go through the MITM attacking computer. 82. When a group of compromised systems attack a single target it is a called a _______________ attack. a. DDoS b. Man-in-the middle c. Replay d. Smurf Grade:1 User Responses:a. DDoS Feedback:a. A distributed denial-of-service attack occurs when a group of compromised systems launches a DDoS attack on a single target. 83. When valid data transmissions are maliciously or fraudulently repeated, it is called a _______________ attack. a. DDoS b. man-in-the middle c. replay d. smurf Grade:1 User Responses:c. replay Feedback:a. When valid data transmissions are maliciously or fraudulently repeated, it is a called a replay attack. 84. What attack sends large amounts of ICMP echoes, broadcasting the ICMP echo requests to every computer on its network or subnetwork? a. DDoS b. Man-in-the middle c. Replay d. Smurf Grade:1 User Responses:d. Smurf Feedback:a. A smurf attack sends large amounts of ICMP echoes, broadcasting the ICMP echo requests to every computer on its network or subnetwork. The ICMP request is sent to a broadcast address. When all hosts receive the ICMP broadcast request, these host send ICMP replies to the source address, which has been set to the address of the target. 85. Changing your MAC address to that of another host is called ___________________. a. spear phishing b. spoofing c. pharming d. vishing Grade:1 User Responses:b. spoofing Feedback:a. Spoofing is when an attacker tails the IP or MAC address of another computer. 86. Which of the following is more an aggravation than an attack? a. Spear phishing b. Spoofing c. Spam d. Vishing Grade:1 User Responses:c. Spam Feedback:a. Spam or unwanted email is more an aggravation than an attack. 87. Which of the following uses instant messaging as its vehicle? a. Spim b. Spoofing c. Phishing d. Vishing Grade:1 User Responses:a. Spim Feedback:a. Spam Over Instant Messaging (SPIM) uses IM to deliver the spam. 88. When VoIP phone calls are used in the pursuit of social engineering, it is called__________. a. spim b. poofing c. phishing d. vishing Grade:1 User Responses:d. vishing Feedback:a. Vishing is phishing performed with VoIP calls, which are harder to trace than regular calls. 89. What type of attack is an advanced scan that tries to get around firewalls and look for open ports? a. DDoS b. Man-in-the-middle c. Xmas attack d. Smurf Grade:1 User Responses:c. Xmas attack Feedback:a. Usually using Nmap, the Xmas attack is an advanced scan that tries to get around firewalls and look for open ports. 90. __________________ is when an attacker redirects one website’s traffic to another bogus and possibly malicious website. a. DDoS b. Pharming c. Xmas attack d. Smurf Grade:1 User Responses:b. Pharming Feedback:a. Host files and vulnerable DNS software can also be victims of pharming attacks. Pharming is when an attacker redirects one website’s traffic to another bogus and possibly malicious website. Pharming can be prevented by carefully monitoring DNS configurations and host files. 91. ___________ is when a person that is not normally authorized to a server manages to get administrative permissions to resources. a. Whaling b. Pharming c. Spear phishing d. Privilege escalation Grade:1 User Responses:d. Privilege escalation Feedback:a. Privilege escalation is when a person that is not normally authorized to a server manages to get administrative permissions to resources. 92. Which problem is the most difficult to contend with? a. Malicious insider threat b. Fraggle attack c. Distributed denial-of-service d. Whaling Grade:1 User Responses:a. Malicious insider threat Feedback:a. Because the attacker already is inside the network with company knowledge, a malicious insider threat is the most difficult to contend with. 93. What type of attack can DNS poisoning lead to? a. Whaling b. Pharming c. Spear phishing d. Privilege escalation Grade:0 User Responses:c. Spear phishing Feedback:a. Pharming attacks lead users from a legitimate website to a malicious twin. The easiest way to do this is to poison the DNS cache so that the DNS server sends them to the malicious site. 94. Strong input validation can help prevent ____________________. a. bluesnarfing b. SQL injection c. session highjacking d. header manipulation Grade:0 User Responses:c. session highjacking Feedback:a. SQL injection attacks user input in web forms that is not correctly filtered. This can be prevented with input validations. 95. LDAP injection is an attack on __________________servers. . SQL b. directory c. web d. email Grade:1 User Responses:b. directory Feedback:a. Lightweight Directory Access Protocol is a protocol used to maintain a directory of information such as user accounts or other types of objects. 96. XML injection can be prevented with __________________. a. IDS b. IPS c. input validation d. complex passwords Grade:0 User Responses:d. complex passwords Feedback:a. The best way to protect against this (and all code injection techniques for that matter) is to incorporate strong input validation. 97. The .. / attack is also known as ________________. a. irectory traversal b. SQL injection c. session highjacking d. header manipulation Grade:1 User Responses:a. directory traversal Feedback:a. Directory traversal, or the .. / (dot dot slash) attack is a method to access unauthorized parent (or worse, root) directories. 98. _____________ is when commands and command syntax are entered into an application or OS. a. Directory traversal b. Command injection c. Command highjacking d. Code manipulation Grade:1 User Responses:b. Command injection Feedback:a. Command injection is when commands and command syntax are entered into an application or OS. 99. Buffer overflows operate against the _________ of the computer. a. NIC b. disk c. CPU d. memory Grade:1 User Responses:d. memory Feedback:a. A buffer overflow is when a process stores data outside of the memory that the developer intended. 100. What is the difference between an XSS and XSRF attack? a. The XSS attack exploits the trust a user’s browser has in a website, whereas the XSFR attack exploits the trust that a website has in a user’s browser. b. The XSFR attack exploits the trust a user’s browser has in a website, whereas the XSS attack exploits the trust that a website has in a user’s browser. . The XSS attack creates a buffer overflow on the website, whereas the XSFR attack creates a buffer overflow on the client. d. The XSS attack creates a buffer overflow on the client, whereas the XSFR attack creates a buffer overflow on the website. Grade:1 User Responses:a. The XSS attack exploits the trust a user’s browser has in a website, whereas t he XSFR attack exploits the trust that a website has in a user’s browser. Feedback:a. The XSS attack exploits the trust a user’s browser has in a website. The converse of this: the XSRF attack exploits the trust that a website has in a user’s browser. In this attack (also known as a one-click attack), the user’s browser is compromised and transmits unauthorized commands to the website. 101. _______________ are placed by programmers, knowingly or inadvertently, to bypass normal authentication and other security mechanisms in place. a. Landing spots b. Backdoors c. Hotspots d. Code heels Grade:1 User Responses:b. Backdoors Feedback:a. Backdoors are placed by programmers, knowingly or inadvertently, to bypass normal authentication and other security mechanisms in place. 102. An XSS attack is also called a(n) __________________ attack. a. Zero day b. Command injection . Xmas d. Cross site scripting Grade:1 User Responses:d. Cross site scripting Feedback:a. XSS attacks, also called cross site scripting attacks, exploit the trust a user’s browser has in a website through code injection, often in webforms. 103. ______________can be used by spyware and can track people without their permission. a. MAC addresses b. Cookies c. IP addresses d. Attachments Grade:1 User Responses:b. Cookies Feedback:a. Cookies are text files placed on the client computer that store information about it, which could include your computer’s browsing habits and possibly user credentials. 104. Which of the following attachments is the riskiest to open? a.. exe b.. pdf c.. doc d.. txt Grade:1 User Responses:a.. exe Feedback:a. A . exe or executable file is one that contains a program that will do something, perhaps malicious to the computer. 105. Stolen cookies can be used to launch a(n) ____________________. a. XSS attack b. SQL injection c. session highjack d. header manipulation Grade:1 User Responses:c. session highjack Feedback:a. Session cookies authenticate you to a server and can be used to highjack your session. 106. Header manipulation alters information in ______________ headers. a. LDAP b. file c. HTTP . SQL Grade:1 User Responses:c. HTTP Feedback:a. Header manipulation alters information in HTTP headers and falsifies access. 107. An ActiveX control is an example of a(n) _________________. a. cookie b. add-on c. cipher d. virus Grade:1 User Responses:b. add-on Feedback:a. You can enable and disable add-on programs such as ActiveX controls in the Programs tab by clicking the Manage add-ons button in Internet Explorer. 108. When an attack targets an operating system vulnerability that is still unknown to the world in general, it is called a __________. a. P2P attack b. zero day attack c. whaling attack d. DDoS attack Grade:1 User Responses:b. zero day attack Feedback:a. A zero day attack targets an operating system vulnerability that is still unknown to the world in general. 109. __________________is a concept that refers to the monitoring of data in use, data in motion, and data at rest. a. DLP b. DHCP c. DEP d. DMS Grade:1 User Responses:a. DLP Feedback:a. Data Loss Prevention (DLP) is a concept that refers to the monitoring of data in use, data in motion, and data at rest. It does this through content inspection and is designed to prevent unauthorized use of data as well as prevent the leakage of data outside the computer (or network) that it resides. 10. Which form of DLP is typically installed in data centers or server rooms? a. Endpoint DLP b. Network DLP c. Storage DLP d. Comprehensive DLP Grade:1 User Responses:c. Storage DLP Feedback:a. Storage DLP systems are typically installed in data centers or server rooms as software that inspect data at rest. 111. Which of the following is an example of d rive encryption? a. AppLocker b. BitLocker c. Windows defender d. Trusted Platform Module Grade:1 User Responses:b. BitLocker Feedback:a. To encrypt an entire hard disk, you need some kind of full disk encryption software. Several are currently available on the market; one developed by Microsoft is called BitLocker. 112. The beauty of hardware-based encryption devices such as HSM (and TPM) is that it is ____________ than software encryption. a. more difficult to crack b. easier to use than software encryption c. faster than software encryption d. can be used to calculate data other than encryption keys Grade:1 User Responses:c. faster than software encryption Feedback:a. Hardware security modules (HSMs) are physical devices that act as secure cryptoprocessors. This means that they are used for encryption during secure login/authentication processes, during digital signings of data, and for payment security systems. The beauty of hardware-based encryption devices such as HSM (and TPM) is that it is faster than software encryption. 113. A _________________ is a chip residing on the motherboard that actually stores the encrypted keys. a. DLP b. DHCP c. DEP d. TPM Grade:1 User Responses:d. TPM Feedback:a. A Trusted Platform Module (TPM) chip is one residing on the motherboard that actually stores the encrypted keys. 114. Which of the following is NOT required to encrypt the entire disk in Windows? Choose all that apply. a. TPM chip or USB key b. A hard drive with two volumes c. HSM Module d. Cryptoprocessor Grade:2 User Responses:c. HSM Module,d. Cryptoprocessor Feedback:a. Hardware security modules (HSMs) are physical devices that act as secure cryptoprocessors; however, they are NOT a part of encrypting the entire disk in Windows. /b. Hardware security modules (HSMs) are physical devices that act as secure cryptoprocessors; however, they are NOT a part of encrypting the entire disk in Windows. 115. Probably the most important security concern with cloud computing is _______________. . less secure connections b. loss of physical control of data c. weak authentication d. bug exploitation Grade:1 User Responses:b. loss of physical control of data Feedback:a. Probably the most important security control concern is the physical control of data that is lost when an organization makes use of cloud computing. 116. Which of the following is NOT a solution to security issues surroundi ng cloud computing? a. Complex passwords b. Strong authentication methods c. Standardization of programming d. Multiple firewalls Grade:1 User Responses:d. Multiple firewalls Feedback:a. Solutions to these security issues include complex passwords, strong authentication methods, encryption, and standardization of programming. 117. Which form of DLP is typically installed on individual computers? a. Endpoint DLP b. Network DLP c. Storage DLP d. Comprehensive DLP Grade:1 User Responses:a. Endpoint DLP Feedback:a. Endpoint DLP systems run on an individual computer and are usually software-based. They monitor data in use such as email communications and can control what information flows between various users. 118. Where could you disable the use of removable media on a computer? a. Device manager . BIOS c. Control panel d. Programs and features Grade:1 User Responses:b. BIOS Feedback:a. BIOS settings can be used to reduce the risk of infiltration including disabling removable media including the floppy drives and eSATA and USB ports. 119. What are two shortcomings of using BitLocker drive encryption? a. Weak encryption b. Expensive c. Performance suffers d. Shorter driv e life Grade:2 User Responses:c. Performance suffers,d. Shorter drive life Feedback:a. A drive encrypted with BitLocker usually suffers in performance compared to a nonencrypted drive and could have a shorter shelf life as well. /b. A drive encrypted with BitLocker usually suffers in performance compared to a nonencrypted drive and could have a shorter shelf life as well. 120. Which form of DLP is typically installed on the perimeter of the network? a. Endpoint DLP b. Network DLP c. Storage DLP d. Comprehensive DLP Grade:1 User Responses:b. Network DLP Feedback:a. Network DLP systems can be software or hardware solutions that are often installed on the perimeter of the network. They inspect data that is in motion. 121. Software as a service (SaaS) is a type of _____________ computing. a. HSM b. cloud c. role-based d. TPM Grade:1 User Responses:b. cloud Feedback:a. Software as a Service (SaaS) is the most commonly used and recognized example of cloud computing. SaaS is when users access applications over the Internet that are provided by a third party. 122. Which form of DLP inspects ONLY data in motion? a. Endpoint DLP b. Network DLP c. Storage DLP d. Comprehensive DLP Grade:1 User Responses:b. Network DLP Feedback:a. Network DLP systems can be software or hardware solutions that are often installed on the perimeter of the network. They inspect data that is in motion. 123. Which of the following is NOT an example of cloud services? a. SaaS b. IaaS c. PaaS d. BaaS Grade:1 User Responses:d. BaaS Feedback:a. Examples of cloud services include Software as a Service (SaaS), Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS), and Platform as a Service (PaaS). 124. When an electronic control suffers an error, reports the error, and shuts down, it is called_____________. a. Failopen b. Failsafe c. Failclose d. Failshut Grade:1 User Responses:b. Failsafe Feedback:a. When the control fails and shuts down, it is a failsafe. When it fails and leaves a vulnerable system, it is a failopen. 125. What should be the first thing you check when an intrusion has been detected? a. Firewall logs b. Server logs c. Workstation logs d. Security patches Grade:1 User Responses:a. Firewall logs Feedback:a. Logging is also important when it comes to a firewall. Firewall logs should be the first thing you check when an intrusion has been detected. You should know how to access the logs and how to read them. 126. Which log on a Windows server is where you could learn if Joe logged in today? a. Applications b. System c. Security d. DNS Grade:1 User Responses:c. Security Feedback:a. The security log contains entries about logins and access to resources both successful and unsuccessful. 127. Which of the following is NOT an example of physical security? a. Mantraps b. Security logs c. Video surveillance d. Hardware locks Grade:1 User Responses:b. Security logs Feedback:a. Security logs track activities on the network which is logical not physical security. 128. Which of the following is NOT a type of door lock? a. Cipher b. Keyed c. Cardkey d. Mantrap Grade:1 User Responses:d. Mantrap Feedback:a. A mantrap is a two door system designed to prevent tailgating. 129. Which of the following is NOT an example of operating system hardening? a. Disabling unnecessary services b. Removing the NIC c. Protecting management interfaces d. Password protection Grade:1 User Responses:b. Removing the NIC Feedback:a. Hardening the system should not reduce its functionality, and removing the NIC would do that. 130. Which of the following standards is often referred to as port-based security? a. 802. 1x b. 802. 11 c. 802. 11n d. 802. 1 Grade:1 User Responses:a. 802. 1x Feedback:a. 802. 1x enforces perimeter security by keeping the port of the station closed until authentication is complete. 131. In which type of monitoring is network traffic analyzed for predetermined attack patterns? a. Signature-based monitoring b. Anomaly-based monitoring c. Behavior-based monitoring d. Reactive-based monitoring Grade:1 User Responses:a. Signature-based monitoring Feedback:a. Network traffic is analyzed for predetermined attack patterns. These attack patterns are known as signatures. 132. A(n) __________________ uses baseline reporting and other analyses to discover vulnerabilities and weaknesses in systems. a. NAT b. SPA c. SLA d. PSK Grade:1 User Responses:b. SPA Feedback:a. The security posture can be defined as the risk level to which a system, or other technology element, is exposed. Security Posture Assessments (SPA) use baseline reporting and other analyses to discover vulnerabilities and weaknesses in systems. 133. Which of the following indicate a problem currently occurring? . Trends b. Baselines c. Alarms d. Averts Grade:1 User Responses:c. Alarms Feedback:a. Although alerts indicate an issue that MAY need attention, alarms indicate a problem currently occurring. 134. Which of the following are detection controls? (Choose all that apply. ) a. IDS b. IPS c. Video cameras d. Security guard Grade:2 User Responses:a. IDS,c. Video camera s Feedback:a. Detection controls, such as Intrusion Detection systems and video cameras record only activity; they do not prevent it. /b. Detection controls, such as Intrusion Detection systems and video cameras record only activity; they do not prevent it. 35. Which of the following is designed to prevent tailgating? a. Mantraps b. Security logs c. Video surveillance d. Hardware locks Grade:1 User Responses:a. Mantraps Feedback:a. Mantraps use double doors to prevent tailgating. 136. Which of the following is a proximity reader? a. a security card that transmits the location of the holder b. a device that tracks how close an individual is c. a security card reader that can read the card from a distance d. a card reader that locks the door when the holder is a certain distance from the door Grade:1 User Responses:c. security card reader that can read the card from a distance Feedback:a. These cards use radio waves to transmit to the reader. 137. By frequently updating systems and by employing other methods such as group policies and baselining, you _____________ the systems. a. brace b. harden c. virtualize d. hardline Grade:1 User Responses:b. harden Feedback:a. By frequently updating systems and by employing other methods such as group policies and baselining, you harden the system. 138. Installing service packs is a part of the ___________ process. a. baselining b. hardening c. scaling . security templating Grade:1 User Responses:b. hardening Feedback:a. Hardening the OS is accomplished through the use of service packs, patch management, hotfixes, group policies, security templates, and configuration baselines. 139. ______________ can be described as unauthorized WAPs that inadvertently enable access to secure networks. a. Rogue access points b. Evil twin c. War driver d. Phisher Grade:1 User Responses:a. Rogue access points Feedback:a. Rogue access points can be described as unauthorized wireless access points/routers that enable access to secure networks. They differ from an Evil twin in that an Evil twin is strategically placed for the purpose of accessing the network or performing a high jacking attack, whereas rogue access points generally may be placed by employees for their convenience. 140. Which wireless attacks include the introduction of radio interference? a. Rogue Access Point b. Evil twin c. War driver d. Bluesnarfing Grade:1 User Responses:b. Evil twin Feedback:a. The evil twin attack includes jamming the network to cause the stations to associate with the evil twin AP. 141. When executing the Evil twin attack, what value must match on the Evil twin and the legitimate AP? . IP address b. SSID c. MAC address d. Admin password Grade:1 User Responses:b. SSID Feedback:a. The Evil twin attack includes jamming the network to cause the stations to associate with the Evil twin AP. The stations will not roam to the Evil twin unless the SSID is the same as the legitimate AP. 142. ________________ is when a person attempts to access a wireless network, usually while driving in a vehicle. a. War chalking b. Radiophishing c. War driving d. Bluesnarfing Grade:1 User Responses:c. War driving Feedback:a. War driving is when a person attempts to access a wireless

Hand Foot and Mouth Disease Essay Example

Hand Foot and Mouth Disease Essay Example Hand Foot and Mouth Disease Essay Hand Foot and Mouth Disease Essay 1. Introduction This report discusses what Hand, Foot and Mouth Disease (HFMD) is, how it is spread as well as the precautions one should take to avoid getting HFMD. There have been recurrent outbreaks of HFMD over the last few years and similar outbreaks of HFMD have also occurred in the region, namely in Brunei and Sarawak. In the recent outbreak in March this year, the number of HMFD cases in Singapore reached a peak of 785 cases a week. With the recurrent outbreaks of HFMD in Singapore and the region, and the potentially serious effects of the disease, particularly on children, the Ministry of Health (MOH) has tightened its guidelines on the procedures for the management of HFMD in child care centres in Singapore. In fact, HFMD is one of 30 ‘notifiable’ diseases, which means that general physicians, polyclinics and hospitals have to inform MOH about every case of HFMD. Owing to the major impact HFMD has on public health, this report serves to highlight several important aspects of HFMD and is submitted to Dr Mark Lim, lecturer of Public Health (PH) at Dover Polytechnic, in partial fulfilment of the PH module. 2. What HFMD is 3. 1. Definition HFMD is defined as Hand, Foot, and Mouth Disease. It is caused by intestinal viruses, with Coxsackie virus and Enterovirus-71 being the most common. Out of the 80 different strains of HFMD, enterovirus-71 is the most infective. 3. 2. Victims HFMD affects both children and adults although it is most commonly found to infect children under the age of 10 years old. : Anyone is at risk of being infected with the HFMD virus but not everyone who is infected becomes ill. Unlike adults, infants, children and adolescents have fewer antibodies that cause them to be immune from exposure. This causes them to be more prone to infection and illness from the HFMD virus. 3. 3. Symptoms After infection, symptoms begin to show around the 3rd-7th day. This is known as the ‘incubation period’. Fever is often the first symptom of HFMD. Other symptoms include sore throat, rash or blisters (on hands, soles of the feet, or buttocks), mouth ulcers, poor appetite, vomiting, diarrhoea and fatigue. 3. 4. Impact Enterovirus-71 killed several children during the Singapore outbreak in 2000, along with an average of 1,140 cases reported each week (Lee, 2005). Consequently, nurseries, kindergartens, enrichment centers and play areas in fast-food restaurants or shopping centers were closed for two weeks to prevent the disease from spreading further. In 2006, there were usually 220 cases of HFMD a month throughout the year. 3. How it is spread The HFMD virus is transmitted from person to person through physical contact with the nasal discharge, saliva, faeces and fluid from the rash of an infected person. It can also be transmitted indirectly from contaminated items such as utensils and toothbrushes. An infected individual is more contagious during the incubation period or the first week of infection. Chances of transmission of this enterovirus are increased by poor hygiene and also overcrowded living conditions. This is why it is advised for children who display any symptom of the infection to avoid visiting public areas and remain within their own homes after consulting medical check-up. 4. Treatment and Prevention There is neither specific treatment to cure HFMD nor is there vaccine to prevent it. However, there is treatment to relieve the symptoms of the illness known as symptomatic treatment. Since the disease is mild and self-limiting, most patients will recover in 7 to 10 days but it may lead to rare complications such as inflammation of the brain and heart. The risk of infection can be lowered by practicing good hygiene. This includes washing hands with soap under running water frequently and disinfecting them afterwards with chlorine-containing bleach. In addition, avoiding close contact such as kissing and hugging with an infected person is another precaution. Furthermore, areas or items handled by the infected individual or are contaminated by his nasal or oral secretions should be cleaned and disinfected thoroughly with sodium 0. 5% hypochlorite solution, an active ingredient in many household types of bleach. In fact, the MOH has implemented a measure where childcare centres and kindergartens with more than 16 HFMD cases or an attack rate greater than 23%, and a transmission period of more than 24 days will be closed for 10 days in attempt to stop the transmission chain. (Ministry of Health, 2013) 5. Conclusion In conclusion, HFMD impacted Singapore greatly. Although it may be self-limiting, it is a highly contagious disease that is capable of causing critical illness and eventually death. Up till today, HFMD cases are continuously being reported to MOH. This epidemic is a global situation alongside bird-flu, H1N1 and other types of deadly contagious diseases. From this report, it is understood that prevention is much more effective than treatment since there is no fixed cure for HFMD. This report also clearly states that it is a team effort by all Singaporeans to counter such a crisis, not just the government’s responsibility but the citizens’ individual responsibility as well. 6. References 1. Lee, M. C. , 2005. Hand Foot Mouth Disease (HFMD) [online]. Singapore: National Library Board. Available from: http://infopedia. nl. sg/articles/SIP_528_2005-01-05. html [Accessed 10 May 2013]. 2. Ministry of Health, 2013. Hand Foot mouth Disease-updates [online]. Singapore: Ministry of Health. Available from: moh. gov. sg/content/moh_web/home/diseases_and_conditions/h/hand_foot_mouth_disease. html [Accessed 11 May 2013]

Forming the Comparative of One-syllable Adjectives

Forming the Comparative of One-syllable Adjectives Forming the Comparative of One-syllable Adjectives Forming the Comparative of One-syllable Adjectives By Maeve Maddox I was only half-listening to an economic analyst being interviewed on NPR, but shot to attention when he said that some economic event was â€Å"a more strong indicator† of something or other. Knowing that being interviewed and talking off the cuff can be stressful for people not used to it, I turned to the web to see if I could find written examples of more being used to compare single-syllable adjectives. Confining my search to the adjective strong, I found these examples: Why para nitro benzoic acid is more stronger acid than meta nitro benzoic acid Which would be a more strong magnet? Is â€Å"certainly† a more strong adverb than â€Å"definitely†? â€Å"certainly† is more stronger. . Merge data fields in a more strong way Which is a more strong and just relation, friendship or love? Note: The positive, comparative, and superlative forms of strong are strong, stronger, strongest. I was looking for examples of â€Å"more strong.† I never expected to find â€Å"more stronger.† Here are the conventional rules for forming the comparative form of a one-syllable adjective in English. To compare a one-syllable adjective ending with a consonant, add -er. small, smaller sweet, sweeter long, longer strong, stronger If the one-syllable adjective already ends with the letter e, form the comparative by adding -r: nice, nicer wise, wiser If the one-syllable adjective ends with a single consonant preceded by a vowel, double the consonant and add -er: big, bigger thin, thinner Now for the exceptions to the rule. Sometimes using more instead of -er with a one-syllable adjective is an acceptable stylistic choice: 1. The writer wishes to emphasize the comparison. â€Å"He promised to paint the chair pink, but when the paint dried, it was more red than pink.† 2. The one-syllable adjective occurs with an adjective of two or more syllables. â€Å"The lecture was more dull and lengthy than the previous one.† 3. It is easier for the speaker to say. â€Å"Both views may be right, but mine is more right than yours.† (Other one-syllable words that compare with more are real and wrong.) Want to improve your English in five minutes a day? Get a subscription and start receiving our writing tips and exercises daily! Keep learning! Browse the Grammar category, check our popular posts, or choose a related post below:Writing Prompts 101Grammar Quiz #21: Restrictive and Nonrestrictive Clauses150 Foreign Expressions to Inspire You

Undecided Research Paper Example | Topics and Well Written Essays - 2250 words - 1

Undecided - Research Paper Example During this process, water becomes produced first from the fractures present within the coal. This process continues until the pressure declines to the level where methane would begin to desorb from the coal surrounding substance itself. The extent of the coalbed fracture stays controlled by the characteristics of the geologic formation, the fluid used in fracturing, and the pressure employed in pumping. The distance at which the fracturing would be performed also comprises geological formation characteristics. The ability for a fracture to grow taller or longer would be determined by the material goods of the surrounding rock. A hydraulically generated fracture would take the route of least resistance through the surrounding rock formations and coal seams (EPA Chapter 1; 3-4). Studies by the Environmental Protection Agency (EPA), Marcellus Shale Team, and the Energy Institute have clearly confirmed the effectiveness of present-day state regulations in protecting water resources. Thi s research paper positions itself to supporting that methane hydraulic fracturing fluids into coalbed wells pose a minimal threat to underground drinking water sources. Discussion EPA conducted a research study into evaluating the impacts of hydraulic fracturing of coalbed methane to underground sources of drinking water. The study employed a methodology covering hydraulic fracturing processes and potential incidents of water quality associated with the process. Also, the methodology would determine hazardous constituents contained in hydraulic fracturing additives and fluids as well as identification of coalbed methane basins hydrogeology. The approach employed a detailed and extensive collection of reviews and information of theoretical and empirical data. EPA also reviewed cases of underground drinking water contamination alleged to have resulted from the injection of methane hydraulic fracturing fluids into coalbed methane beds (EPA Chapter 2; 2). Methane hydraulic fracturing fl uids include foamed gels, acids, potassium chloride water and clear water, cross or linear linked gels and a combined treatment of any two or more of these fluids. On the other hand, hydraulic additives include biocides, friction reducers, breakers, acid corrosion inhibitors and fluid loss additives (EPA Chapter 4; 2-8). Their findings on water quality incidents reflected data from formal studies, in addition to the opinions of, residents living near coalbed methane sites namely Black Warrior, Powder River Basins, San Juan and Central Appalachian. Incidences of contamination could be attributed to common production activities such as surface discharge of fracturing and production fluids, and methane migration through fracturing and drilling made outlets. In addition, contamination could arise from improperly abandoned production well, aquifer dewatering and poorly installed or sealed production wells. Moreover, natural factors, resource development, historical practices and populati on growth also constitute potential sources of contamination to drinking water. However, the follow-up outcomes of the study concluded that underground drinking water sources could not be contaminated by hydraulic fracturing. According to EPA, the production of ground water would minimize the likelihood that chemicals contained in fracturing fluids could impact negatively on underground drink

Land Law UK Assignment Example | Topics and Well Written Essays - 1500 words

Land Law UK - Assignment Example This will ensure that there will be no party in the agreement that goes to a loss. Under the law, the bank as the mortgagee would exercise the following remedies against the borrowers here referred to as the mortgager. The mortgager while going through with their repayments for the property owns title over the property, but: the mortgagee is entitled to the following rights relating to the title of the mortgager. One of such is the right to make perfect the title where in case the mortgagee is the second mortgagee after the first one, he buys the first mortgagee and hence becomes the first. Secondly, the mortgager has the right to improve the property as a representation for the security for the loan but such expenditure are required to be reasonable compared with the amount borrowed so that repayment is not hampered (Stroud, 2013). In addition, it is normally the order of the day that the mortgager receives back the substance of the mortgage upon redemption of the mortgage. Therefore, if the mortgagee makes more expenditure than is reasonable then the mortgagee is not entitle to claim reimbursements for the money spent. This is as in the case of South well v Roberts (1940) 63 CLR 581. In the event that the mortgager does not meet the obligation to repay as in our case; then the bank has two major remedies. First, this is the right of the bank to exercise the power of sale as stipulated in the mortgage document as well as the statutes. Secondly, the mortgagee has the remedy of foreclosure as stated in section 100 of the Conveyancing Act. Under the old system, foreclosure can only be effected by court order while foreclosure under the Torrens system, it is required that an application is made to the registrar general to make an order of foreclosure under section 61 of the law. In the event of mortgage defaulting all mortgages, have the power

Psychology For Social Care Practice Essay Example for Free

Psychology For Social Care Practice Essay This essay will demonstrate my understanding of developments which occur at each stage of an individuals life cycle. I will relate these developments to two relevant psychological theories and discuss how an individuals needs must be met to enable them to develop. The human life cycle can be broken down into 5 basic stages (Bingham et al. 2009); Infancy 0-2 years Childhood 2-12 years Adolescence 12-21 years Adulthood 21-65 years Older Adulthood 65+ years During each stage of the life cycle, different physical, emotional, cognitive, social and cultural developments occur; In infancy, physical changes include learning to sit up, crawl and walk independently. At this stage, the infant will begin to look for attention from others and seek affection and love. Infants are able to interact with others by smiling/laughing and crying, and begin to form attachments to main care givers such as family members from around 6 months. Fine motor skills and communication skills (understanding and formation of words) develop rapidly in infancy and individuals will become used to the routines and norms of those around them. In childhood, physical development extends to skills in balance and control over the body. Emotionally, the child will continue to strengthen bonds with primary care givers and social development will move on to interactive play and forming friendships. Language and expression develop further and the child shows a capacity to learn new information and skills as well as learning about and conforming to social and cultural norms. The body begins to change significantly in adolescence; the individual will go through puberty. An adolescent will be more self aware than in childhood and will become detached from primary care givers, instead preferring to form closer relationships with friends and peers. The individual will form stronger affiliations to certain cultural and sub-cultural norms and will express these through personal appearance, partaking in activities and choosing certain peer groups. In early adulthood, the individual will reach a peak of physical fitness which they will thereafter have to work at to maintain. More physical demands are made on the body such as childbearing, work and aging. Emotionally, a person  in adulthood will have established a role possibly in their place of work, or at home as a parent- how effectively they fill their role can effect self esteem. Social development can become limited to those with similar careers or interests and can be hindered by other responsibilities s uch as work and family commitments. Older adults may experience a decline in physical fitness eyesight may deteriorate and the body may become weaker. Some individuals may remain fairly fit well into older adulthood and some may find that physical fitness can deteriorate rapidly. Older adulthood can be isolating and ones self image can be altered through changing of roles eg. retirement. Socially, some find a sense of freedom in being able to leave work behind and live, others lose a sense of purpose and find that their world may become smaller and more family focused. Older adults will have a well established perception of themselves and what they find acceptable as part of their culture. For this essay I have used Mrs. Oswald as a case study. Mrs. Oswald is a resident at Thorneycroft residential care home for older people. She has been a resident at Thorneycroft for six months and at ninety-five years old, is in the final stage of development as detailed in the life cycle breakdown above. Mrs. Oswald is relatively able bodied, she is able to bathe herself but requires help getting in and out of the bath. She is able to move around independently, she does have a tripod to help her with this but she doesnt tend to use it. She is prone to falling over and has fallen fifteen times since moving to Thorneycroft, this is not helped by her insomnia which leaves her restless at night so she ends up wandering around unattended. Mrs. Oswald is hard of hearing and requires a hearing aid but her eyesight is good when wearing her glasses. She has a good level of personal hygiene and takes pride in her appearance. Before coming to Thorneycroft she had home help who assisted her with household tasks such as cooking and housework and helped her with medication for her cellulitis. Mrs. Oswald was a midwife for fifty years, she is well educated and enjoys sharing her knowledge and talking about her career. She keeps her mind active by reading the newspaper, doing crossword puzzles and playing dominoes when she goes to the day centre but it is possible that these activities are not stimulating enough fo r her. She is a little confused at times about her roles; she behaves as though Thorneycroft staff are her employees and adopts a matron-like attitude with them, which probably  crosses over from her role in her career as a midwife. She can be forgetful but does not have dementia and before moving to Thorneycroft was quite vulnerable as she sees the best in people and was being exploited by people doing odd jobs and coming in and out of her home. Mrs. Oswald appears to be content on the surface, she has started to accept death and talks about it openly. Her remaining family all live some distance away in England but she looks forward to a phonecall from her cousin each evening and seems to take comfort in speaking to him, appearing more settled after their conversations. She has outlived her close family husband and daughters and appears lonely. Mrs. Oswald doesnt talk much about her husband an daughters the way she does about her career, it is possible that talking about them makes her feel sad. As before, Mrs. Oswald has not made friends with other residents of Thorneycroft, though she has made a few friends at the daycentre. She likes to talk and could be encouraged to mix more which would help with her feel ings of loneliness, she never had friends or visitors at home before she came to Thorneycroft as her family all live far away and only visit to attend review meetings every six months. She has not formed close relationships with staff at Thorneycroft, instead, as mentioned before she treats them as her employees. Mrs. Oswald is an articulate and well spoken individual who has come from a middle class background. She appears to be well educated and has had a successful career as a midwife spanning fifty years. She had her daughters when she was young and out of wedlock, as a result they were brought up by her mother and Mrs. Oswald left at sixteen to begin her training as a midwife. Her career was important to her and she concentrated on this, not having any more children and marrying late in life. Her middle class upbringing has followed her through life, and she still takes pride in her appearance and has a strong sense of what she believes to be proper. Her husband and her enjoyed going on cruises and she is well- travelled. She does not attend church services or appear to be religious at all. In order for them to progress successfully through each stage in the life cycle, an individuals needs at each stage must be met. For example, our most basic physical needs are shelter and nourishment, if these needs are not met in the infant stage, potential for development and progression into childhood will be threatened. For each aspect of development, certain needs must be met; Physical The body must be kept fit and healthy through nourishment, shelter from the elements and the cold, excercise and rest. Emotional The need to be loved and to feel love for others. Good self esteem can be established from feeling loved and wanted by others. Social Being able to interact and build relationships with people around you. Cognitive The need for opportunities to learn and develop knowledge and keep the mind active. Cultural Having your values, religion, diet, language etc.(norms) as part of your daily life. In order for me to understand the needs of Mrs. Oswald and to what extent her needs have been met throughout her life, I examined Erik Eriksons theory of eight psychosocial stages. Erikson believed that humans develop through eight predetermined stages (a detailed table of these can be found in appendix 1) and in order to progress successfully through life, we must successfully negotiate each stage and that failure to do so results in mental deficiencies suc h as lack of trust, which will remain with us throughout life (Collin et al., p. 273). Each stage has one positive outcome and one negative outcome, and individuals progress through each life stage with a mixture of both, the differences between positive and negative being a result of the environment the individual is developing in. Mrs. Oswald, as an adolescent, would have experienced role confusion. She was from a middle class background but fell pregnant at a young age, resulting in her being hidden away and her mother raising her children as her own. It would have gone against Mrs. Oswalds role as a respectable young girl to have children at such a young age. She went off to train as a midwife at sixteen and left her family and her daughters behind. She concentrated on her career and appeared not to have any intimacy throughout young adulthood. This was resolved in mature adulthood when Mrs. Oswald got married and enjoyed the intimacy which she had missed out on in young adulthood. She never had any more children but her husband nd her appeared to have a happy life and they enjoyed travelling together. Mrs. Oswald is now in maturity and has begun to talk about death in an accepting way. Her needs may not have been met in the early stages of her life where she did not conform to her role in society and her life lacked intimacy, but later in life she had a successful and satisfying career and a happy marriage. I have used Abraham Maslows Hierarchy of Needs (see appendix 2) to assess how  Mrs. Oswalds needs are being met now. Maslows Hierarchy of Needs starts at the basic physiological needs we need just to stay alive. Once these are made we have a need for safety, then we want love and affection. Within our group we want to have self esteem. Finally we have a need of satisfying our full potential that Maslow calls Self Actualization (Deeper Mind). Maslow believed that ones needs had to be met at each stage of the hierarchy before the needs at the next stage could be attended to. The first category in Maslows hierarchy refers to physiological needs. I believe that most of Mrs. Oswalds needs are being met at this level. She has plenty to eat and drink and since she is mobile she has some level of excercise. She can have fresh air and she has warmth and shelter. However, Mrs. Oswalds need for sleep is not being met at Thorneycroft. She suffers from insomnia which is not helped by the fact that her bed is too small and therefore uncomfortable for her to sleep in. This has resulted in her being reluctant to settle in bed at night at all, so she is losing out on sleep. As a result of all her physiological needs not being met, all of Mrs. Oswalds safety needs are not being met either. Although she has shelter and security at Thorneycroft, the fact that she does not sleep has compromised her safety as she has a tendency to wander around at night time and is prone to falling as her mobility is not great. Mrs. Oswald appears sad that she has outlived her close family and her husband and doesnt speak about them much. She does have some distant family whom she speaks with on the phone every night which brings her some comfort, but she remains distant with others and reluctant to form close relationships with staff or fellow residents. Her need for love and belonging has not been satisfied. In order for Mrs. Oswald to progress and reach self actualisation the care staff at Thorneycroft must work on the needs which are not being met. Getting her a bed which is comfortable for her to sleep in may help her to settle at night and reduce the risk of a fall. She could be encouraged to mix more with fellow residents and form closer relationships with them as well as staff. This will help with Mrs. Oswalds sense of love and belonging and boost her self-esteem which will help her to reach self actualisation. References BBC (2014) BBC News Magazine. [Online] Available from: http://www.bbc.co.uk/news/magazine-23902918 [Accessed 13/11/2014] BINGHAM, E. et al (2009) HNC Social Care for Scotland. 12th Ed. Essex: Heinemann. COLLIN, C. et al (2012) The Psychology Book. London: DK London. MACLEOD, S. (2011) Simply Psychology. [Online] Available form :http://www.simplypsychology.org/Erik-Erikson.html [Accessed 11/11/2014]. NORWOOD, G. (2014) Deeper Mind. [Online] Available from: http://www.deepermind.com/20maslow.htm [Accessed 11/11/2014]