Introduction of Information Security Systems Cis4385 Essay Example

Introduction of Information Security Systems Cis4385 Essay 1. Which if the following IPv6 address type is assigned to multiple interfaces but packets will only be delivered to one? a. Multicast b. Anycast c. Unicast d. Broadcast Grade:1 User Responses:b. Anycast Feedback:a. An anycast address is assigned to a group of interfaces on multiple nodes. Packets are delivered to the â€Å"first† interface only. 2. Routers operate at which OSI layer? a. Physical b. Transport c. Network d. Session Grade:1 User Responses:c. Network Feedback:a. Routers operate at the network layer making routing decisions based on IP addresses. 3. Which of the following is NOT a private IPv4 address? Choose all that apply. a. 192. 168. 5. 60 b. 172. 25. 6. 4 c. 10. 0. 6. 5 d. 26. 68. 6. 1 Grade:1 User Responses:d. 26. 68. 6. 1 Feedback:a. The private IP address ranges are as follows. IP Class Assigned Range Class A 10. 0. 0. 0-10. 255. 255. 255 Class B 172. 16. 0. 0-172. 31. 255. 255 Class C 192. 168. 0. 0-192. 168. 255. 255 4. What is a server that evaluates Internet requests from LAN devices against a set called? a. Proxy b. Firewall c. Load balancer d. NAT server Grade:1 User Responses:a. Proxy Feedback:a. A server that evaluates Internet requests from LAN devices against a set of rules is called a proxy server. NAT servers perform private to public address translation; load balancers manage traffic between cluster hosts; and a firewall filters traffic based on access control lists. 5. Which type of device maintains awareness of the status of connections, thereby preventing IP spoofing attacks? a. Stateless packet filtering firewall b. Stateful packet filtering firewall c. NAT filter d. Application-level gateway Grade:1 User Responses:b. Stateful packet filtering firewall Feedback:a. A stateful packet filtering firewall is one that monitors the state of each connection by examining the header of each packet. We will write a custom essay sample on Introduction of Information Security Systems Cis4385 specifically for you for only $16.38 $13.9/page Order now We will write a custom essay sample on Introduction of Information Security Systems Cis4385 specifically for you FOR ONLY $16.38 $13.9/page Hire Writer We will write a custom essay sample on Introduction of Information Security Systems Cis4385 specifically for you FOR ONLY $16.38 $13.9/page Hire Writer A stateless packet filtering firewall does not do this. NAT filters perform only private-to-public address translation. An application-level gateway provides protection to a specific application such as FTP. 6. Which of the following firewall services works at the session layer of the OSI model? a. Application layer gateway b. Stateful filtering c. NAT d. Circuit-level gateway Grade:0 User Responses:c. NAT Feedback:a. Circuit-level gateways work at the Session Layer of the OSI model and apply security mechanisms when a TCP or UDP connection is established; they act as a go between for the Transport and Application Layers in TCP/IP. After the connection has been made, packets can flow between the hosts without further checking. Circuit-level gateways hide information about the private network, but they do not filter individual packets. 7. Which of the following are the two main functions of a proxy server? a. Caching of web pages b. NAT c. Domain authentication d. DHCP Grade:1 User Responses:a. Caching of web pages,c. Domain authentication Feedback:a. A proxy server secures a network by keeping machines behind it anonymous; it does this through the use of NAT. It also improves web performance by caching web pages from servers on the Internet for a set amount of time. b. A proxy server secures a network by keeping machines behind it anonymous; it does this through the use of NAT. It also improves web performance by caching web pages from servers on the Internet for a set amount of time. 8. Which of the following devices can detect but not prevent attacks across the entire network? a. NIDS b. Host-based IDS c. NIP S d. Protocol Analyzer Grade:1 User Responses:a. NIDS Feedback:a. Network Intrusion Detection Systems (NIDS) detect but do not prevent attacks across the entire network. Host-based IDS can protect only the host on which it is installed. Network Intrusion Protection Systems (NIPS) can detect and prevent attacks across the entire network. A Protocol Analyzer can capture traffic but not act upon it. 9. When a NIPs blocks legitimate traffic, what is it known as? a. False negative b. True negative c. False positive d. True positive Grade:1 User Responses:c. False positive Feedback:a. A blocking of traffic is a positive action, and when it is in response to legitimate traffic, it is considered a false action; thus it is a false positive. A false negative would be when an action is NOT taken on traffic that is not legitimate. The other two options are normal actions; a true negative is the allowing of legitimate traffic, whereas a true positive is the blocking of illegitimate traffic. 10. Which of the following types of NIPS reacts to actions that deviate from a baseline? a. Signature-based b. Heuristic c. Anomaly-based d. Bit blocker Grade:1 User Responses:c. Anomaly-based Feedback:a. Anomaly-based NIPS recognizes traffic that is unusual and reports it. Signature-based NIPs are configured with the signatures of attacks. Heuristics looks for patterns in the traffic, whereas bit blocker is a not a type of NIPs. 1. Which of the following systems attempt to stop the leakage of confidential data, often concentrating on communications? a. DHCP b. DNS c. DLP d. STP Grade:1 User Responses:c. DLP Feedback:a. Data loss prevention (DLP) systems are designed to protect data by way of content inspection. They are meant to stop the leakage of confidential data, often concentrating on communications. As such, they are often also referred to as data leak prevention (DLP) devices, information leak prevention (ILP) devices, and extrusion prevention systems. Regardless, they are intended to be used to keep data from leaking past a computer system or network and into unwanted hands. 12. When a company buys fire insurance they are ____________ risk. a. accepting b. avoiding c. transferring d. reducing Grade:1 User Responses:c. transferring Feedback:a. It is possible to transfer some risk to a third-party. An example of risk transference (also known as risk sharing) would be an organization that purchases insurance for a group of servers in a datacenter. The organization still takes on the risk of losing data in the case of server failure, theft, and disaster, but transfers the risk of losing the money those servers are worth in the case they are lost. 13. Which of the following processes block external files that use JavaScript or images from loading into the browser? a. URL filtering b. Content filtering c. Malware inspection d. Blacklists Grade:1 User Responses:b. Content filtering Feedback:a. Content filtering is a process that blocks external files that use JavaScript or images from loading into the browser. URL filtering blocks pages based on the URL. Malware inspection looks for malware based on a signature file, and blacklists are items to be denied by spam filters. 14. Which of the following actions should NOT be taken for the default account on a network device? a. Delete it. b. Change the password. c. Disable it. d. Leave it as is. Grade:1 User Responses:d. Leave it as is. Feedback:a. The default account has a well-known username and password, so it should be either deleted or disabled, or at a minimum its password should be changed. 15. Firewall rules are typically based in all but which of the following? a. IP addresses b. MAC addresses c. Port numbers . Content type Grade:1 User Responses:d. Content type Feedback:a. Firewall rules are typically based on IP addresses, MAC addresses, or port numbers, but they cannot filter for content. 16. Which of the following is the target of a double tagging attack? a. VPNs b. VLANs c. Collision domains d. DMZs Grade:1 User Responses:b. VLANs Feedback:a. A double tagging attack can enabl e the attacker to view traffic from multiple VLANs. 17. A network created to allow access to resources from the Internet, while maintaining separation from the internal network is called a ______? a. VPN b. VLAN c. Honeypot d. DMZ Grade:1 User Responses:d. DMZ Feedback:a. When talking about computer security, a Demilitarized Zone (DMZ) is a special area of the network (sometimes referred to as a subnetwork) that houses servers which host information accessed by clients or other networks on the Internet, but which does not allow access to the internal network. 18. How can access to the remote management of a router be protected? a. Content filtering b. ACLs c. Firewalls d. IPS Grade:0 User Responses:c. Firewalls Feedback:a. Remote access to a router is usually done via Telnet or SSH. The port used (vty line) can be secured using an access control list. The other options can all be used to help protect routers but not access the remote management function. 19. You need to allow access from your network to all web sites. What port numbers should be opened in the firewall? Choose all that apply. a. 25 b. 443 c. 80 d. 119 e. 22 f. 23 Grade:1 User Responses:c. 80 Feedback:a. HTTP and HTTPS are the two services you need to allow access to use ports 80 and 443 respectively. 20. Which of the following mitigation techniques can prevent MAC flooding? a. Secure VLANs b. Prevent ICMP responses c. 802. 1x d. 802. 1q Grade:1 User Responses:c. 802. 1x Feedback:a. MAC flooding, which involves overwhelming the memory of the switch with MAC frames sourced from different MAC addresses, can be prevented by requiring authentication on each port through 802. 1x. Secure VLANs cannot prevent this because the frames don’t need to enter a VLAN to cause the problem. ICMP is at Layer 3, these frames are at Layer 2, and 802. 1q is a VLAN tagging protocol that does not prevent frames from entering the switch through access ports. 21. Which of the following attacks cannot be mitigated with a flood guard? a. Smurf attack b. Fraggle c. Teardrop attack d. Session theft Grade:1 User Responses:d. Session theft Feedback:a. The smurf, fraggle, and teardrop attacks all involve sending a flood of packets to a device, using different types of malformed packets. A session theft attack is when a session cookie is stolen and used to authenticate to a server. 22. Loop protection is designed to address problems that occur with which device? a. Switch b. Hub c. Router d. Firewall Grade:0 User Responses:b. Hub Feedback:a. Loops occur when switches have redundant connections causing a loop. Loop guard (or loop protection) can prevent loops on the switch. 23. When creating an ACL which of the following statements is NOT true? a. The order of the rules is important for proper functioning b. You must include a deny all statement at the end of the rule set for proper functioning c. The more specific rules should be placed at the beginning of the rule list d. Once created, the ACL must be applied to an interface Grade:1 User Responses:b. You must include a deny all statement at the end of the rule set for proper functioning Feedback:a. There is an implied deny all statement at the end of each ACL and it is not required to include one. 24. Which of the following is an example of insecure network bridging in a LAN? a. Laptop connected to a hotspot and an ad hoc network . Laptop connected to a wireless network and the wired LAN at the same time c. Router connected to two subnets d. PC connected with two NIC to the same LAN Grade:1 User Responses:b. Laptop connected to a wireless network and the wired LAN at the same time Feedback:a. When a laptop connects to a wireless network and the wired LAN at the same time, it can create a bridge between the two allowing access to the LAN. The other scenarios do not create a security problem for the LAN. 25. When the administrator creates a rule on the firewall to prevent FTP traffic, this is a type of __________rule. . implicit deny b. implicit allow c. explicit deny d. explicit allow Grade:1 User Responses:c. explicit deny Feedback:a. When traffic is specified to be prevented, it is an explicit deny. When it is denied simply because it was not specifically allowed, that is an implicit deny. 26. Network Access Control (NAC) is an example of_______________. a. role-based management b. rules-based management c. port-based access d. application layer filtering Grade:1 User Responses:b. rules-based management Feedback:a. Network Access Control (NAC) uses rules by which connections to a network are governed. Computers attempting to connect to a network are denied access unless they comply with rules including levels of antivirus protection, system updates, and so on—effectively weeding out those who would perpetuate malicious attacks. 27. What type of device is required for communication between VLANs? a. Hub b. Switch c. Router d. Firewall Grade:1 User Responses:c. Router Feedback:a. Hosts in different VLANs are also in different subnets and routing must be performed for them to communicate. 28. Which of the following would be least likely to be placed in the DMZ? a. Web server b. DNS server c. Domain controller d. FTP server Grade:1 User Responses:c. Domain controller Feedback:a. All the options except a domain controller are often placed in the DMZ so they are accessible to the outside world. A DC however is sensitive and should NOT be placed in the DMZ. 29. Subnetting a network creates segmentation at which layer of the OSI model? a. Layer 1 b. Layer 2 c. Layer 3 d. Layer 4 Grade:1 User Responses:c. Layer 3 Feedback:a. Subnetting a network creates segmentation using IP addresses, which is Layer 3. 30. What service is required to represent multiple private IP addresses with a single public IP address? a. NAT b. DHCP c. DNS d. DLP Grade:0 User Responses:a. NAT Feedback:a. Network Address Translation (NAT) is required to represent multiple private IP addresses with a single public IP address. The specific form of NAT required to represent multiple private IP addresses with a single public IP address is called Port Address Translation (PAT). 31. Which of the following is NOT a remote access protocol? a. MS-CHAP b. CHAP c. LDAP d. PAP Grade:1 User Responses:c. LDAP Feedback:a. Lightweight Directory Access Protocol is used for accessing directory services such as Active Directory. It is not used in remote access. All other options are remote access protocols. 2. Which of the following devices are susceptible to war dialing? a. Modems b. Firewalls c. Content filters d. Load balancers Grade:0 User Responses:a. Modems Feedback:a. Any devices that accept phone calls such as modems or PBX systems with remote phone access are susceptible to war dialing. 33. When computers are not allowed to connect to the network without proper security patches and virus updates, the network is using a form of _____________. a. PAT b. DAC c. NAC d. DMZ Grade:0 User Responses:d. DMZ Feedback:a. Network Access Control (NAC) uses rules by which connections to a network are governed. Computers attempting to connect to a network are denied access unless they comply with rules including levels of antivirus protection, system updates, and so on—effectively weeding out those who would perpetuate malicious attacks. 34. Which of the following items do not need to be changed on a new router to ensure secure router management? a. IP address b. Administrator name c. Administrator password d. IOS version Grade:1 User Responses:d. IOS version Feedback:a. All the options except the IOS version can be set to defaults from the factory and should be changed because they are well known. 5. Which of the following is NOT an example of cloud computing? a. SaaS b. IaaS c. PaaS d. BaaS Grade:1 User Responses:d. BaaS Feedback:a. Software as a Service (SaaS), Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS), and Platform as a Service (PaaS) are all forms of cloud computing. 36. On which concept is cloud computing based? a. load balancing b. virtualization c. RAID d. DLP Grade:1 User Responses :b. virtualization Feedback:a. All forms of cloud computing use virtualization. 37. A three legged perimeter is a form of ______________. a. VPN b. DMZ c. NAT d. ACL Grade:1 User Responses:b. DMZ Feedback:a. A three-legged perimeter is a firewall or server with three NICs: one pointed to the LAN, one to the Internet, and one to the DMZ. 38. Which of the following is NOT a benefit provided by subnetting? a. It increases security by compartmentalizing the network. b. It is a more efficient use of IP address space. c. It reduces broadcast traffic and collisions. d. It eases administration of the network. Grade:1 User Responses:d. It eases administration of the network. Feedback:a. Subnetting provides a number of benefits but easing administration is not one of them. 39. Which of the following is the result of implementing VLANs? . Larger broadcast domains b. Smaller collision domains c. Smaller broadcast domains d. Larger collision domains Grade:1 User Responses:c. Smaller broadcast domains Feedback:a. VLANs break up the network into subnets and as such result in smaller broadcast domains. 40. Which of the following services helps conserve public IP addresses? a. NAT b. DHCP c. DNS d. SLIP Grade:0 User Responses:c. DNS Feedback:a. By allowing the use of private IP addresses inside each network and by representing those groups of private IP addresses with a single public IP address, public IP addresses are conserved by NAT. 41. Which of the following remote access protocols are used with VPNs? Choose all that apply. a. PPTP b. PPP c. L2TP d. SLIP Grade:1 User Responses:c. L2TP,d. SLIP Feedback:a. Point-to-Point Tunneling Protocol (PPTP) and Layer Two Tunneling protocol (L2TP) are used with VPNs. PPP and SLIP are used for dial-up. /b. Point-to-Point Tunneling Protocol (PPTP) and Layer Two Tunneling protocol (L2TP) are used with VPNs. PPP and SLIP are used for dial-up. 42. Which of the following security protocols operates at the network layer of the OSI model? a. IPSec b. SSH c. SSL d. TLS Grade:1 User Responses:a. IPSec Feedback:a. One of the key features of IPSec is its operation at the network layer enabling it to protect any type of communication operating at the upper layers of the OSI model. 43. Which of the following are components of SNMP? Choose all that apply. a. NMS b. IPSec c. Agent d. CARP Grade:1 User Responses:b. IPSec,c. Agent Feedback:a. The three components of SNMP are a network management system (NMS), agent software, and the managed device, where the agent software operates. /b. The three components of SNMP are a network management system (NMS), agent software, and the managed device, where the agent software operates. 44. SSL is designed as a secure replacement for which of the following? a. PPP b. Telnet c. TLS d. SSH Grade:0 User Responses:d. SSH Feedback:a. SSL is designed as a secure replacement for Telnet, which transmits in clear text. 45. Which of the following protocols supersedes SSL? a. SSH b. TLS c. S/MIME d. EAP Grade:0 User Responses:a. SSH Feedback:a. TLS 1. 2, the latest version, is used when establishing an HTTPS connection and supersedes SSLv3. 46. The operation of which of the following protocols makes the SYN flood attack possible? a. IPX/SPX b. AppleTalk c. TCP/IP d. RIP Grade:1 User Responses:c. TCP/IP Feedback:a. TCP/IP uses a three-way handshake for its connection, and the SYN flood attack attempts to take advantage of the operation of this connection operation. 47. Which of the following provides secure web access? a. SFTP b. HTTP c. HTTPS d. SSH Grade:1 User Responses:c. HTTPS Feedback:a. HTTPS uses port 443 and is the standard for secure web access. 48. SCP is a secure copy protocol that uses the port of which other protocol for transfers? a. HTTPS b. SSH c. SSL d. FTPS Grade:0 User Responses:d. FTPS Feedback:a. Secure copy (SCP) is another example of a protocol that uses another protocol (and its corresponding port). It uses SSH and ultimately uses port 22 to transfer data. 49. Which of the following protocols is abused when a ping flood occurs? a. SNMP b. IGMP c. ICMP d. EIGRP Grade:0 User Responses:a. SNMP Feedback:a. Ping floods use ICMP echo request packets aimed at the target. 50. Which of the following security mechanisms are built into IPv6? a. IPSec b. SSL c. HTTPS d. EAP Grade:1 User Responses:a. IPSec Feedback:a. IPv6 has IPSec support built in. 51. What method is used by SSL to obtain and validate certificates? a. SPI b. PKI c. TLS d. EAP Grade:1 User Responses:b. PKI Feedback:a. SSL and TLS use a public Key Infrastructure (PKI) to obtain and validate certificates. 52. What port number does FTPS use to protect the transmission? a. 21 b. 88 c. 443 d. 445 Grade:0 User Responses:a. 21 Feedback:a. FTPS uses SSL or TLS over port 443 to make a secure connection. 53. Which of the following protocols uses port 22, normally used by SSH, to make a secure connection? a. FTPS b. SCP c. SFTP d. SSL Grade:0 User Responses:b. SCP Feedback:a. Secure FTP (SFTP) uses port 22, the port for SSH, which is why it is also sometimes called SSH FTP. 54. Which protocol uses ports 161 and 162? a. SMTP b. IMAP4 . SNMP d. IGMP Grade:0 User Responses:a. SMTP Feedback:a. SNMP is used to collect information about and make changes to devices on the network. It uses ports 161 and 162. 55. Which protocol uses the same port as HTTPS? a. SCP b. FTPS c. SFTP d. IMAP4 Grade:0 User Responses:c. SFTP Feedback:a. FTP secure (FTPS) uses port 443, which is also used by HTTPS. 56. Which protocol uses po rt 69? a. SCP b. FTPS c. TFTP d. IMAP4 Grade:1 User Responses:c. TFTP Feedback:a. TFTP uses port 69. 57. What port number is used by Telnet? a. 80 b. 443 c. 21 d. 23 Grade:1 User Responses:d. 23 Feedback:a. Port 23 is used by Telnet. 8. Which port does HTTP use? a. 80 b. 443 c. 21 d. 23 Grade:0 User Responses:b. 443 Feedback:a. HTTP uses port 80. 59. Which port does SCP use to transfer data? a. 80 b. 22 c. 21 d. 23 Grade:0 User Responses:c. 21 Feedback:a. SCP uses SSH and thus port 22 to transfer data. 60. Which protocol uses port 443? a. HTTPS b. FTPS c. TFTP d. IMAP4 Grade:1 User Responses:a. HTTPS Feedback:a. HTTPS uses port 443. 61. Which two protocols use port 22? a. HTTPS b. FTPS c. SSH d. SCP Grade:2 User Responses:c. SSH,d. SCP Feedback:a. SCP uses SSH and thus port 22 to transfer data, so both protocols use this port. b. SCP uses SSH and thus port 22 to transfer data, so both protocols use this port. 62. Which ports does the NetBIOS protocol uses? Choose all that apply. a. 138 b. 139 c. 137 d. 140 Grade:3 User Responses:a. 138,b. 139,c. 137 Feedback:a. The NetBIOS protocol uses ports 137 through 139. /b. The NetBIOS protocol uses ports 137 through 139. /c. The NetBIOS protocol uses ports 137 through 139. 63. What protocol uses port 53? a. HTTPS b. FTPS c. SSH d. DNS Grade:0 User Responses:b. FTPS Feedback:a. DNS uses port 53. 64. Which port number does RDP use? a. 3389 b. 1723 c. 1701 d. 140 Grade:1 User Responses:a. 3389 Feedback:a. Port 3389 is used for Remote Desktop (RDP). 65. What protocol uses port 25? a. HTTPS b. SMTP c. SSH d. DNS Grade:1 User Responses:b. SMTP Feedback:a. SMTP uses port 25. 66. Which of the following statements is true regarding WPA and WPA2? (Choose all that apply. ) a. WPA uses 256-bit encryption. b. WPA2 uses 128-bit encryption. c. WPA uses TKIP. d. WPA2 uses AES. Grade:2 User Responses:c. WPA uses TKIP. ,d. WPA2 uses AES. Feedback:a. WPA uses TKIP 128-bit encryption, whereas WPA2 uses 256-bit AES. /b. WPA uses TKIP 128-bit encryption, whereas WPA2 uses 256-bit AES. 67. Which statement is NOT true with regard to WPA2? a. Uses AES encryption b. Meets requirements of 802. 11i c. Uses TKIP encryption d. Uses 256 bit encryption Grade:1 User Responses:c. Uses TKIP encryption Feedback:a. WPA uses TKIP but WPA2 uses AES. 68. Which of the following is the security provided in the original 802. 11 standard? a. WPA b. WPA2 c. WEP d. CCMP Grade:1 User Responses:c. WEP Feedback:a. Wired Equivalent Privacy (WEP) is the security provided in the original 802. 11 standard. 69. What is the authentication system that calls for a supplicant, authenticator, and authentication server called? . EAP b. WPA c. WPA2 d. WEP Grade:1 User Responses:a. EAP Feedback:a. Extensible Authentication Protocol (EAP) is an authentication system that calls for a supplicant, authenticator, and authentication server. 70. Which of the following implementations of EAP requires certificates on the client and the server? a. EAP-FAST b. EAP-TTLS c. PEAP d. EAP-TLS Grade:1 User Responses:d. EAP- TLS Feedback:a. EAP-TLS requires certificates on the client and the server. 71. Which of the following versions of EAP is Cisco proprietary? a. LEAP b. EAP-TTLS c. PEAP d. EAP-TLS Grade:1 User Responses:a. LEAP Feedback:a. Lightweight EAP is a version that works only on Cisco devices unless the device is from a partner that participates in the Cisco Compatible Extensions program. 72. Why are MAC filters not effective in preventing access to the WLAN? a. The MAC addresses of allowed devices are contained in the beacon frames sent by the AP. b. The MAC addresses of allowed devices are contained in any frames sent by the allowed device. c. The administrative effort to maintain the MAC list is prohibitive. d. If the user changes his MAC address, the filter will disallow entry. Grade:1 User Responses:b. The MAC addresses of allowed devices are contained in any frames sent by the allowed device. Feedback:a. The MAC addresses of allowed devices are contained in any frames sent by the allowed device and can be seen by those using wireless protocol analyzers. The MAC address can then be spoofed for entry. 73. Which of the following frame types contain the SSID? (Choose all that apply. ) a. Beacon frames b. Data frames c. Association frames d. Authentication frames Grade:3 User Responses:b. Data frames,c. Association frames,d. Authentication frames Feedback:a. The SSID is contained in all frames. If the SSID is hidden, it is removed only from the beacon frames. /b. The SSID is contained in all frames. If the SSID is hidden, it is removed only from the beacon frames. /c. The SSID is contained in all frames. If the SSID is hidden, it is removed only from the beacon frames. 74. TKIP was designed to correct the shortcomings of which of the following? a. EAP b. WPA c. WEP d. WPA2 Grade:1 User Responses:c. WEP Feedback:a. TKIP was designed to correct the shortcomings of WEP. It was a temporary solution for use until the 802. 1x standard was completed. 75. Which of the following encryption protocols is used with WPA2? . TKIP b. CCMP c. WEP d. DES Grade:1 User Responses:b. CCMP Feedback:a. Counter Mode with Cipher Block Chaining Message Authentication Code Protocol (CCMP) is the encryption protocol used with WPA2. It addresses the vulnerabilities of TKIP and meets requirements of IEEE 802. 11i. 76. Which antenna types would be best for shaping the signal away from the front of the bu ilding for security purposes while still providing coverage in the other part of the building? (Choose all that apply. ) a. Yagi b. Omni c. Parabolic dish d. Semidirectional Grade:2 User Responses:a. Yagi,d. Semidirectional Feedback:a. You can use a yagi antenna, which is a type of semidirectional antenna, to shape the coverage area as called for in the scenario. /b. You can use a yagi antenna, which is a type of semidirectional antenna, to shape the coverage area as called for in the scenario. 77. How can you keep the existing radiation pattern of the antenna while reducing the coverage area? a. Increase the power of the transmitter. b. Decrease the power of the transmitter. c. Change the polarity of the antenna. d. Remove one of the attenuators from the line. Grade:1 User Responses:b. Decrease the power of the transmitter. Feedback:a. Reducing the power level maintains the radiation pattern while making the area of radiation smaller. 78. What organization created WPA? a. FCC b. Wi-Fi Alliance c. IEEE d. ISO Grade:1 User Responses:b. Wi-Fi Alliance Feedback:a. The Wi-Fi Alliance created WPA to address the weaknesses of WEP. 79. To which standard is WPA2 designed to adhere? a. 802. 16 b. 802. 11f c. 802. 11i d. 802. 11e Grade:1 User Responses:c. 802. 11i Feedback:a. WPA2 is designed to adhere to the 802. 11i security standard. 80. Which of the following is the weakest form of security? a. TKIP b. WPA c. WEP d. EAP Grade:1 User Responses:c. WEP Feedback:a. WEP is the weakest form of security. It has been cracked and is not suitable for Enterprise WLANs. 81. A ______________ attack intercepts all data between a client and a server. a. DDoS b. Man-in-the-middle c. Replay d. Smurf Grade:1 User Responses:b. Man-in-the-middle Feedback:a. Man-in-the-middle is a type of active interception. If successful, all communications now go through the MITM attacking computer. 82. When a group of compromised systems attack a single target it is a called a _______________ attack. a. DDoS b. Man-in-the middle c. Replay d. Smurf Grade:1 User Responses:a. DDoS Feedback:a. A distributed denial-of-service attack occurs when a group of compromised systems launches a DDoS attack on a single target. 83. When valid data transmissions are maliciously or fraudulently repeated, it is called a _______________ attack. a. DDoS b. man-in-the middle c. replay d. smurf Grade:1 User Responses:c. replay Feedback:a. When valid data transmissions are maliciously or fraudulently repeated, it is a called a replay attack. 84. What attack sends large amounts of ICMP echoes, broadcasting the ICMP echo requests to every computer on its network or subnetwork? a. DDoS b. Man-in-the middle c. Replay d. Smurf Grade:1 User Responses:d. Smurf Feedback:a. A smurf attack sends large amounts of ICMP echoes, broadcasting the ICMP echo requests to every computer on its network or subnetwork. The ICMP request is sent to a broadcast address. When all hosts receive the ICMP broadcast request, these host send ICMP replies to the source address, which has been set to the address of the target. 85. Changing your MAC address to that of another host is called ___________________. a. spear phishing b. spoofing c. pharming d. vishing Grade:1 User Responses:b. spoofing Feedback:a. Spoofing is when an attacker tails the IP or MAC address of another computer. 86. Which of the following is more an aggravation than an attack? a. Spear phishing b. Spoofing c. Spam d. Vishing Grade:1 User Responses:c. Spam Feedback:a. Spam or unwanted email is more an aggravation than an attack. 87. Which of the following uses instant messaging as its vehicle? a. Spim b. Spoofing c. Phishing d. Vishing Grade:1 User Responses:a. Spim Feedback:a. Spam Over Instant Messaging (SPIM) uses IM to deliver the spam. 88. When VoIP phone calls are used in the pursuit of social engineering, it is called__________. a. spim b. poofing c. phishing d. vishing Grade:1 User Responses:d. vishing Feedback:a. Vishing is phishing performed with VoIP calls, which are harder to trace than regular calls. 89. What type of attack is an advanced scan that tries to get around firewalls and look for open ports? a. DDoS b. Man-in-the-middle c. Xmas attack d. Smurf Grade:1 User Responses:c. Xmas attack Feedback:a. Usually using Nmap, the Xmas attack is an advanced scan that tries to get around firewalls and look for open ports. 90. __________________ is when an attacker redirects one website’s traffic to another bogus and possibly malicious website. a. DDoS b. Pharming c. Xmas attack d. Smurf Grade:1 User Responses:b. Pharming Feedback:a. Host files and vulnerable DNS software can also be victims of pharming attacks. Pharming is when an attacker redirects one website’s traffic to another bogus and possibly malicious website. Pharming can be prevented by carefully monitoring DNS configurations and host files. 91. ___________ is when a person that is not normally authorized to a server manages to get administrative permissions to resources. a. Whaling b. Pharming c. Spear phishing d. Privilege escalation Grade:1 User Responses:d. Privilege escalation Feedback:a. Privilege escalation is when a person that is not normally authorized to a server manages to get administrative permissions to resources. 92. Which problem is the most difficult to contend with? a. Malicious insider threat b. Fraggle attack c. Distributed denial-of-service d. Whaling Grade:1 User Responses:a. Malicious insider threat Feedback:a. Because the attacker already is inside the network with company knowledge, a malicious insider threat is the most difficult to contend with. 93. What type of attack can DNS poisoning lead to? a. Whaling b. Pharming c. Spear phishing d. Privilege escalation Grade:0 User Responses:c. Spear phishing Feedback:a. Pharming attacks lead users from a legitimate website to a malicious twin. The easiest way to do this is to poison the DNS cache so that the DNS server sends them to the malicious site. 94. Strong input validation can help prevent ____________________. a. bluesnarfing b. SQL injection c. session highjacking d. header manipulation Grade:0 User Responses:c. session highjacking Feedback:a. SQL injection attacks user input in web forms that is not correctly filtered. This can be prevented with input validations. 95. LDAP injection is an attack on __________________servers. . SQL b. directory c. web d. email Grade:1 User Responses:b. directory Feedback:a. Lightweight Directory Access Protocol is a protocol used to maintain a directory of information such as user accounts or other types of objects. 96. XML injection can be prevented with __________________. a. IDS b. IPS c. input validation d. complex passwords Grade:0 User Responses:d. complex passwords Feedback:a. The best way to protect against this (and all code injection techniques for that matter) is to incorporate strong input validation. 97. The .. / attack is also known as ________________. a. irectory traversal b. SQL injection c. session highjacking d. header manipulation Grade:1 User Responses:a. directory traversal Feedback:a. Directory traversal, or the .. / (dot dot slash) attack is a method to access unauthorized parent (or worse, root) directories. 98. _____________ is when commands and command syntax are entered into an application or OS. a. Directory traversal b. Command injection c. Command highjacking d. Code manipulation Grade:1 User Responses:b. Command injection Feedback:a. Command injection is when commands and command syntax are entered into an application or OS. 99. Buffer overflows operate against the _________ of the computer. a. NIC b. disk c. CPU d. memory Grade:1 User Responses:d. memory Feedback:a. A buffer overflow is when a process stores data outside of the memory that the developer intended. 100. What is the difference between an XSS and XSRF attack? a. The XSS attack exploits the trust a user’s browser has in a website, whereas the XSFR attack exploits the trust that a website has in a user’s browser. b. The XSFR attack exploits the trust a user’s browser has in a website, whereas the XSS attack exploits the trust that a website has in a user’s browser. . The XSS attack creates a buffer overflow on the website, whereas the XSFR attack creates a buffer overflow on the client. d. The XSS attack creates a buffer overflow on the client, whereas the XSFR attack creates a buffer overflow on the website. Grade:1 User Responses:a. The XSS attack exploits the trust a user’s browser has in a website, whereas t he XSFR attack exploits the trust that a website has in a user’s browser. Feedback:a. The XSS attack exploits the trust a user’s browser has in a website. The converse of this: the XSRF attack exploits the trust that a website has in a user’s browser. In this attack (also known as a one-click attack), the user’s browser is compromised and transmits unauthorized commands to the website. 101. _______________ are placed by programmers, knowingly or inadvertently, to bypass normal authentication and other security mechanisms in place. a. Landing spots b. Backdoors c. Hotspots d. Code heels Grade:1 User Responses:b. Backdoors Feedback:a. Backdoors are placed by programmers, knowingly or inadvertently, to bypass normal authentication and other security mechanisms in place. 102. An XSS attack is also called a(n) __________________ attack. a. Zero day b. Command injection . Xmas d. Cross site scripting Grade:1 User Responses:d. Cross site scripting Feedback:a. XSS attacks, also called cross site scripting attacks, exploit the trust a user’s browser has in a website through code injection, often in webforms. 103. ______________can be used by spyware and can track people without their permission. a. MAC addresses b. Cookies c. IP addresses d. Attachments Grade:1 User Responses:b. Cookies Feedback:a. Cookies are text files placed on the client computer that store information about it, which could include your computer’s browsing habits and possibly user credentials. 104. Which of the following attachments is the riskiest to open? a.. exe b.. pdf c.. doc d.. txt Grade:1 User Responses:a.. exe Feedback:a. A . exe or executable file is one that contains a program that will do something, perhaps malicious to the computer. 105. Stolen cookies can be used to launch a(n) ____________________. a. XSS attack b. SQL injection c. session highjack d. header manipulation Grade:1 User Responses:c. session highjack Feedback:a. Session cookies authenticate you to a server and can be used to highjack your session. 106. Header manipulation alters information in ______________ headers. a. LDAP b. file c. HTTP . SQL Grade:1 User Responses:c. HTTP Feedback:a. Header manipulation alters information in HTTP headers and falsifies access. 107. An ActiveX control is an example of a(n) _________________. a. cookie b. add-on c. cipher d. virus Grade:1 User Responses:b. add-on Feedback:a. You can enable and disable add-on programs such as ActiveX controls in the Programs tab by clicking the Manage add-ons button in Internet Explorer. 108. When an attack targets an operating system vulnerability that is still unknown to the world in general, it is called a __________. a. P2P attack b. zero day attack c. whaling attack d. DDoS attack Grade:1 User Responses:b. zero day attack Feedback:a. A zero day attack targets an operating system vulnerability that is still unknown to the world in general. 109. __________________is a concept that refers to the monitoring of data in use, data in motion, and data at rest. a. DLP b. DHCP c. DEP d. DMS Grade:1 User Responses:a. DLP Feedback:a. Data Loss Prevention (DLP) is a concept that refers to the monitoring of data in use, data in motion, and data at rest. It does this through content inspection and is designed to prevent unauthorized use of data as well as prevent the leakage of data outside the computer (or network) that it resides. 10. Which form of DLP is typically installed in data centers or server rooms? a. Endpoint DLP b. Network DLP c. Storage DLP d. Comprehensive DLP Grade:1 User Responses:c. Storage DLP Feedback:a. Storage DLP systems are typically installed in data centers or server rooms as software that inspect data at rest. 111. Which of the following is an example of d rive encryption? a. AppLocker b. BitLocker c. Windows defender d. Trusted Platform Module Grade:1 User Responses:b. BitLocker Feedback:a. To encrypt an entire hard disk, you need some kind of full disk encryption software. Several are currently available on the market; one developed by Microsoft is called BitLocker. 112. The beauty of hardware-based encryption devices such as HSM (and TPM) is that it is ____________ than software encryption. a. more difficult to crack b. easier to use than software encryption c. faster than software encryption d. can be used to calculate data other than encryption keys Grade:1 User Responses:c. faster than software encryption Feedback:a. Hardware security modules (HSMs) are physical devices that act as secure cryptoprocessors. This means that they are used for encryption during secure login/authentication processes, during digital signings of data, and for payment security systems. The beauty of hardware-based encryption devices such as HSM (and TPM) is that it is faster than software encryption. 113. A _________________ is a chip residing on the motherboard that actually stores the encrypted keys. a. DLP b. DHCP c. DEP d. TPM Grade:1 User Responses:d. TPM Feedback:a. A Trusted Platform Module (TPM) chip is one residing on the motherboard that actually stores the encrypted keys. 114. Which of the following is NOT required to encrypt the entire disk in Windows? Choose all that apply. a. TPM chip or USB key b. A hard drive with two volumes c. HSM Module d. Cryptoprocessor Grade:2 User Responses:c. HSM Module,d. Cryptoprocessor Feedback:a. Hardware security modules (HSMs) are physical devices that act as secure cryptoprocessors; however, they are NOT a part of encrypting the entire disk in Windows. /b. Hardware security modules (HSMs) are physical devices that act as secure cryptoprocessors; however, they are NOT a part of encrypting the entire disk in Windows. 115. Probably the most important security concern with cloud computing is _______________. . less secure connections b. loss of physical control of data c. weak authentication d. bug exploitation Grade:1 User Responses:b. loss of physical control of data Feedback:a. Probably the most important security control concern is the physical control of data that is lost when an organization makes use of cloud computing. 116. Which of the following is NOT a solution to security issues surroundi ng cloud computing? a. Complex passwords b. Strong authentication methods c. Standardization of programming d. Multiple firewalls Grade:1 User Responses:d. Multiple firewalls Feedback:a. Solutions to these security issues include complex passwords, strong authentication methods, encryption, and standardization of programming. 117. Which form of DLP is typically installed on individual computers? a. Endpoint DLP b. Network DLP c. Storage DLP d. Comprehensive DLP Grade:1 User Responses:a. Endpoint DLP Feedback:a. Endpoint DLP systems run on an individual computer and are usually software-based. They monitor data in use such as email communications and can control what information flows between various users. 118. Where could you disable the use of removable media on a computer? a. Device manager . BIOS c. Control panel d. Programs and features Grade:1 User Responses:b. BIOS Feedback:a. BIOS settings can be used to reduce the risk of infiltration including disabling removable media including the floppy drives and eSATA and USB ports. 119. What are two shortcomings of using BitLocker drive encryption? a. Weak encryption b. Expensive c. Performance suffers d. Shorter driv e life Grade:2 User Responses:c. Performance suffers,d. Shorter drive life Feedback:a. A drive encrypted with BitLocker usually suffers in performance compared to a nonencrypted drive and could have a shorter shelf life as well. /b. A drive encrypted with BitLocker usually suffers in performance compared to a nonencrypted drive and could have a shorter shelf life as well. 120. Which form of DLP is typically installed on the perimeter of the network? a. Endpoint DLP b. Network DLP c. Storage DLP d. Comprehensive DLP Grade:1 User Responses:b. Network DLP Feedback:a. Network DLP systems can be software or hardware solutions that are often installed on the perimeter of the network. They inspect data that is in motion. 121. Software as a service (SaaS) is a type of _____________ computing. a. HSM b. cloud c. role-based d. TPM Grade:1 User Responses:b. cloud Feedback:a. Software as a Service (SaaS) is the most commonly used and recognized example of cloud computing. SaaS is when users access applications over the Internet that are provided by a third party. 122. Which form of DLP inspects ONLY data in motion? a. Endpoint DLP b. Network DLP c. Storage DLP d. Comprehensive DLP Grade:1 User Responses:b. Network DLP Feedback:a. Network DLP systems can be software or hardware solutions that are often installed on the perimeter of the network. They inspect data that is in motion. 123. Which of the following is NOT an example of cloud services? a. SaaS b. IaaS c. PaaS d. BaaS Grade:1 User Responses:d. BaaS Feedback:a. Examples of cloud services include Software as a Service (SaaS), Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS), and Platform as a Service (PaaS). 124. When an electronic control suffers an error, reports the error, and shuts down, it is called_____________. a. Failopen b. Failsafe c. Failclose d. Failshut Grade:1 User Responses:b. Failsafe Feedback:a. When the control fails and shuts down, it is a failsafe. When it fails and leaves a vulnerable system, it is a failopen. 125. What should be the first thing you check when an intrusion has been detected? a. Firewall logs b. Server logs c. Workstation logs d. Security patches Grade:1 User Responses:a. Firewall logs Feedback:a. Logging is also important when it comes to a firewall. Firewall logs should be the first thing you check when an intrusion has been detected. You should know how to access the logs and how to read them. 126. Which log on a Windows server is where you could learn if Joe logged in today? a. Applications b. System c. Security d. DNS Grade:1 User Responses:c. Security Feedback:a. The security log contains entries about logins and access to resources both successful and unsuccessful. 127. Which of the following is NOT an example of physical security? a. Mantraps b. Security logs c. Video surveillance d. Hardware locks Grade:1 User Responses:b. Security logs Feedback:a. Security logs track activities on the network which is logical not physical security. 128. Which of the following is NOT a type of door lock? a. Cipher b. Keyed c. Cardkey d. Mantrap Grade:1 User Responses:d. Mantrap Feedback:a. A mantrap is a two door system designed to prevent tailgating. 129. Which of the following is NOT an example of operating system hardening? a. Disabling unnecessary services b. Removing the NIC c. Protecting management interfaces d. Password protection Grade:1 User Responses:b. Removing the NIC Feedback:a. Hardening the system should not reduce its functionality, and removing the NIC would do that. 130. Which of the following standards is often referred to as port-based security? a. 802. 1x b. 802. 11 c. 802. 11n d. 802. 1 Grade:1 User Responses:a. 802. 1x Feedback:a. 802. 1x enforces perimeter security by keeping the port of the station closed until authentication is complete. 131. In which type of monitoring is network traffic analyzed for predetermined attack patterns? a. Signature-based monitoring b. Anomaly-based monitoring c. Behavior-based monitoring d. Reactive-based monitoring Grade:1 User Responses:a. Signature-based monitoring Feedback:a. Network traffic is analyzed for predetermined attack patterns. These attack patterns are known as signatures. 132. A(n) __________________ uses baseline reporting and other analyses to discover vulnerabilities and weaknesses in systems. a. NAT b. SPA c. SLA d. PSK Grade:1 User Responses:b. SPA Feedback:a. The security posture can be defined as the risk level to which a system, or other technology element, is exposed. Security Posture Assessments (SPA) use baseline reporting and other analyses to discover vulnerabilities and weaknesses in systems. 133. Which of the following indicate a problem currently occurring? . Trends b. Baselines c. Alarms d. Averts Grade:1 User Responses:c. Alarms Feedback:a. Although alerts indicate an issue that MAY need attention, alarms indicate a problem currently occurring. 134. Which of the following are detection controls? (Choose all that apply. ) a. IDS b. IPS c. Video cameras d. Security guard Grade:2 User Responses:a. IDS,c. Video camera s Feedback:a. Detection controls, such as Intrusion Detection systems and video cameras record only activity; they do not prevent it. /b. Detection controls, such as Intrusion Detection systems and video cameras record only activity; they do not prevent it. 35. Which of the following is designed to prevent tailgating? a. Mantraps b. Security logs c. Video surveillance d. Hardware locks Grade:1 User Responses:a. Mantraps Feedback:a. Mantraps use double doors to prevent tailgating. 136. Which of the following is a proximity reader? a. a security card that transmits the location of the holder b. a device that tracks how close an individual is c. a security card reader that can read the card from a distance d. a card reader that locks the door when the holder is a certain distance from the door Grade:1 User Responses:c. security card reader that can read the card from a distance Feedback:a. These cards use radio waves to transmit to the reader. 137. By frequently updating systems and by employing other methods such as group policies and baselining, you _____________ the systems. a. brace b. harden c. virtualize d. hardline Grade:1 User Responses:b. harden Feedback:a. By frequently updating systems and by employing other methods such as group policies and baselining, you harden the system. 138. Installing service packs is a part of the ___________ process. a. baselining b. hardening c. scaling . security templating Grade:1 User Responses:b. hardening Feedback:a. Hardening the OS is accomplished through the use of service packs, patch management, hotfixes, group policies, security templates, and configuration baselines. 139. ______________ can be described as unauthorized WAPs that inadvertently enable access to secure networks. a. Rogue access points b. Evil twin c. War driver d. Phisher Grade:1 User Responses:a. Rogue access points Feedback:a. Rogue access points can be described as unauthorized wireless access points/routers that enable access to secure networks. They differ from an Evil twin in that an Evil twin is strategically placed for the purpose of accessing the network or performing a high jacking attack, whereas rogue access points generally may be placed by employees for their convenience. 140. Which wireless attacks include the introduction of radio interference? a. Rogue Access Point b. Evil twin c. War driver d. Bluesnarfing Grade:1 User Responses:b. Evil twin Feedback:a. The evil twin attack includes jamming the network to cause the stations to associate with the evil twin AP. 141. When executing the Evil twin attack, what value must match on the Evil twin and the legitimate AP? . IP address b. SSID c. MAC address d. Admin password Grade:1 User Responses:b. SSID Feedback:a. The Evil twin attack includes jamming the network to cause the stations to associate with the Evil twin AP. The stations will not roam to the Evil twin unless the SSID is the same as the legitimate AP. 142. ________________ is when a person attempts to access a wireless network, usually while driving in a vehicle. a. War chalking b. Radiophishing c. War driving d. Bluesnarfing Grade:1 User Responses:c. War driving Feedback:a. War driving is when a person attempts to access a wireless

Hand Foot and Mouth Disease Essay Example

Hand Foot and Mouth Disease Essay Example Hand Foot and Mouth Disease Essay Hand Foot and Mouth Disease Essay 1. Introduction This report discusses what Hand, Foot and Mouth Disease (HFMD) is, how it is spread as well as the precautions one should take to avoid getting HFMD. There have been recurrent outbreaks of HFMD over the last few years and similar outbreaks of HFMD have also occurred in the region, namely in Brunei and Sarawak. In the recent outbreak in March this year, the number of HMFD cases in Singapore reached a peak of 785 cases a week. With the recurrent outbreaks of HFMD in Singapore and the region, and the potentially serious effects of the disease, particularly on children, the Ministry of Health (MOH) has tightened its guidelines on the procedures for the management of HFMD in child care centres in Singapore. In fact, HFMD is one of 30 ‘notifiable’ diseases, which means that general physicians, polyclinics and hospitals have to inform MOH about every case of HFMD. Owing to the major impact HFMD has on public health, this report serves to highlight several important aspects of HFMD and is submitted to Dr Mark Lim, lecturer of Public Health (PH) at Dover Polytechnic, in partial fulfilment of the PH module. 2. What HFMD is 3. 1. Definition HFMD is defined as Hand, Foot, and Mouth Disease. It is caused by intestinal viruses, with Coxsackie virus and Enterovirus-71 being the most common. Out of the 80 different strains of HFMD, enterovirus-71 is the most infective. 3. 2. Victims HFMD affects both children and adults although it is most commonly found to infect children under the age of 10 years old. : Anyone is at risk of being infected with the HFMD virus but not everyone who is infected becomes ill. Unlike adults, infants, children and adolescents have fewer antibodies that cause them to be immune from exposure. This causes them to be more prone to infection and illness from the HFMD virus. 3. 3. Symptoms After infection, symptoms begin to show around the 3rd-7th day. This is known as the ‘incubation period’. Fever is often the first symptom of HFMD. Other symptoms include sore throat, rash or blisters (on hands, soles of the feet, or buttocks), mouth ulcers, poor appetite, vomiting, diarrhoea and fatigue. 3. 4. Impact Enterovirus-71 killed several children during the Singapore outbreak in 2000, along with an average of 1,140 cases reported each week (Lee, 2005). Consequently, nurseries, kindergartens, enrichment centers and play areas in fast-food restaurants or shopping centers were closed for two weeks to prevent the disease from spreading further. In 2006, there were usually 220 cases of HFMD a month throughout the year. 3. How it is spread The HFMD virus is transmitted from person to person through physical contact with the nasal discharge, saliva, faeces and fluid from the rash of an infected person. It can also be transmitted indirectly from contaminated items such as utensils and toothbrushes. An infected individual is more contagious during the incubation period or the first week of infection. Chances of transmission of this enterovirus are increased by poor hygiene and also overcrowded living conditions. This is why it is advised for children who display any symptom of the infection to avoid visiting public areas and remain within their own homes after consulting medical check-up. 4. Treatment and Prevention There is neither specific treatment to cure HFMD nor is there vaccine to prevent it. However, there is treatment to relieve the symptoms of the illness known as symptomatic treatment. Since the disease is mild and self-limiting, most patients will recover in 7 to 10 days but it may lead to rare complications such as inflammation of the brain and heart. The risk of infection can be lowered by practicing good hygiene. This includes washing hands with soap under running water frequently and disinfecting them afterwards with chlorine-containing bleach. In addition, avoiding close contact such as kissing and hugging with an infected person is another precaution. Furthermore, areas or items handled by the infected individual or are contaminated by his nasal or oral secretions should be cleaned and disinfected thoroughly with sodium 0. 5% hypochlorite solution, an active ingredient in many household types of bleach. In fact, the MOH has implemented a measure where childcare centres and kindergartens with more than 16 HFMD cases or an attack rate greater than 23%, and a transmission period of more than 24 days will be closed for 10 days in attempt to stop the transmission chain. (Ministry of Health, 2013) 5. Conclusion In conclusion, HFMD impacted Singapore greatly. Although it may be self-limiting, it is a highly contagious disease that is capable of causing critical illness and eventually death. Up till today, HFMD cases are continuously being reported to MOH. This epidemic is a global situation alongside bird-flu, H1N1 and other types of deadly contagious diseases. From this report, it is understood that prevention is much more effective than treatment since there is no fixed cure for HFMD. This report also clearly states that it is a team effort by all Singaporeans to counter such a crisis, not just the government’s responsibility but the citizens’ individual responsibility as well. 6. References 1. Lee, M. C. , 2005. Hand Foot Mouth Disease (HFMD) [online]. Singapore: National Library Board. Available from: http://infopedia. nl. sg/articles/SIP_528_2005-01-05. html [Accessed 10 May 2013]. 2. Ministry of Health, 2013. Hand Foot mouth Disease-updates [online]. Singapore: Ministry of Health. Available from: moh. gov. sg/content/moh_web/home/diseases_and_conditions/h/hand_foot_mouth_disease. html [Accessed 11 May 2013]

Forming the Comparative of One-syllable Adjectives

Forming the Comparative of One-syllable Adjectives Forming the Comparative of One-syllable Adjectives Forming the Comparative of One-syllable Adjectives By Maeve Maddox I was only half-listening to an economic analyst being interviewed on NPR, but shot to attention when he said that some economic event was â€Å"a more strong indicator† of something or other. Knowing that being interviewed and talking off the cuff can be stressful for people not used to it, I turned to the web to see if I could find written examples of more being used to compare single-syllable adjectives. Confining my search to the adjective strong, I found these examples: Why para nitro benzoic acid is more stronger acid than meta nitro benzoic acid Which would be a more strong magnet? Is â€Å"certainly† a more strong adverb than â€Å"definitely†? â€Å"certainly† is more stronger. . Merge data fields in a more strong way Which is a more strong and just relation, friendship or love? Note: The positive, comparative, and superlative forms of strong are strong, stronger, strongest. I was looking for examples of â€Å"more strong.† I never expected to find â€Å"more stronger.† Here are the conventional rules for forming the comparative form of a one-syllable adjective in English. To compare a one-syllable adjective ending with a consonant, add -er. small, smaller sweet, sweeter long, longer strong, stronger If the one-syllable adjective already ends with the letter e, form the comparative by adding -r: nice, nicer wise, wiser If the one-syllable adjective ends with a single consonant preceded by a vowel, double the consonant and add -er: big, bigger thin, thinner Now for the exceptions to the rule. Sometimes using more instead of -er with a one-syllable adjective is an acceptable stylistic choice: 1. The writer wishes to emphasize the comparison. â€Å"He promised to paint the chair pink, but when the paint dried, it was more red than pink.† 2. The one-syllable adjective occurs with an adjective of two or more syllables. â€Å"The lecture was more dull and lengthy than the previous one.† 3. It is easier for the speaker to say. â€Å"Both views may be right, but mine is more right than yours.† (Other one-syllable words that compare with more are real and wrong.) Want to improve your English in five minutes a day? Get a subscription and start receiving our writing tips and exercises daily! Keep learning! Browse the Grammar category, check our popular posts, or choose a related post below:Writing Prompts 101Grammar Quiz #21: Restrictive and Nonrestrictive Clauses150 Foreign Expressions to Inspire You

Undecided Research Paper Example | Topics and Well Written Essays - 2250 words - 1

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Land Law UK Assignment Example | Topics and Well Written Essays - 1500 words

Land Law UK - Assignment Example This will ensure that there will be no party in the agreement that goes to a loss. Under the law, the bank as the mortgagee would exercise the following remedies against the borrowers here referred to as the mortgager. The mortgager while going through with their repayments for the property owns title over the property, but: the mortgagee is entitled to the following rights relating to the title of the mortgager. One of such is the right to make perfect the title where in case the mortgagee is the second mortgagee after the first one, he buys the first mortgagee and hence becomes the first. Secondly, the mortgager has the right to improve the property as a representation for the security for the loan but such expenditure are required to be reasonable compared with the amount borrowed so that repayment is not hampered (Stroud, 2013). In addition, it is normally the order of the day that the mortgager receives back the substance of the mortgage upon redemption of the mortgage. Therefore, if the mortgagee makes more expenditure than is reasonable then the mortgagee is not entitle to claim reimbursements for the money spent. This is as in the case of South well v Roberts (1940) 63 CLR 581. In the event that the mortgager does not meet the obligation to repay as in our case; then the bank has two major remedies. First, this is the right of the bank to exercise the power of sale as stipulated in the mortgage document as well as the statutes. Secondly, the mortgagee has the remedy of foreclosure as stated in section 100 of the Conveyancing Act. Under the old system, foreclosure can only be effected by court order while foreclosure under the Torrens system, it is required that an application is made to the registrar general to make an order of foreclosure under section 61 of the law. In the event of mortgage defaulting all mortgages, have the power

Psychology For Social Care Practice Essay Example for Free

Psychology For Social Care Practice Essay This essay will demonstrate my understanding of developments which occur at each stage of an individuals life cycle. I will relate these developments to two relevant psychological theories and discuss how an individuals needs must be met to enable them to develop. The human life cycle can be broken down into 5 basic stages (Bingham et al. 2009); Infancy 0-2 years Childhood 2-12 years Adolescence 12-21 years Adulthood 21-65 years Older Adulthood 65+ years During each stage of the life cycle, different physical, emotional, cognitive, social and cultural developments occur; In infancy, physical changes include learning to sit up, crawl and walk independently. At this stage, the infant will begin to look for attention from others and seek affection and love. Infants are able to interact with others by smiling/laughing and crying, and begin to form attachments to main care givers such as family members from around 6 months. Fine motor skills and communication skills (understanding and formation of words) develop rapidly in infancy and individuals will become used to the routines and norms of those around them. In childhood, physical development extends to skills in balance and control over the body. Emotionally, the child will continue to strengthen bonds with primary care givers and social development will move on to interactive play and forming friendships. Language and expression develop further and the child shows a capacity to learn new information and skills as well as learning about and conforming to social and cultural norms. The body begins to change significantly in adolescence; the individual will go through puberty. An adolescent will be more self aware than in childhood and will become detached from primary care givers, instead preferring to form closer relationships with friends and peers. The individual will form stronger affiliations to certain cultural and sub-cultural norms and will express these through personal appearance, partaking in activities and choosing certain peer groups. In early adulthood, the individual will reach a peak of physical fitness which they will thereafter have to work at to maintain. More physical demands are made on the body such as childbearing, work and aging. Emotionally, a person  in adulthood will have established a role possibly in their place of work, or at home as a parent- how effectively they fill their role can effect self esteem. Social development can become limited to those with similar careers or interests and can be hindered by other responsibilities s uch as work and family commitments. Older adults may experience a decline in physical fitness eyesight may deteriorate and the body may become weaker. Some individuals may remain fairly fit well into older adulthood and some may find that physical fitness can deteriorate rapidly. Older adulthood can be isolating and ones self image can be altered through changing of roles eg. retirement. Socially, some find a sense of freedom in being able to leave work behind and live, others lose a sense of purpose and find that their world may become smaller and more family focused. Older adults will have a well established perception of themselves and what they find acceptable as part of their culture. For this essay I have used Mrs. Oswald as a case study. Mrs. Oswald is a resident at Thorneycroft residential care home for older people. She has been a resident at Thorneycroft for six months and at ninety-five years old, is in the final stage of development as detailed in the life cycle breakdown above. Mrs. Oswald is relatively able bodied, she is able to bathe herself but requires help getting in and out of the bath. She is able to move around independently, she does have a tripod to help her with this but she doesnt tend to use it. She is prone to falling over and has fallen fifteen times since moving to Thorneycroft, this is not helped by her insomnia which leaves her restless at night so she ends up wandering around unattended. Mrs. Oswald is hard of hearing and requires a hearing aid but her eyesight is good when wearing her glasses. She has a good level of personal hygiene and takes pride in her appearance. Before coming to Thorneycroft she had home help who assisted her with household tasks such as cooking and housework and helped her with medication for her cellulitis. Mrs. Oswald was a midwife for fifty years, she is well educated and enjoys sharing her knowledge and talking about her career. She keeps her mind active by reading the newspaper, doing crossword puzzles and playing dominoes when she goes to the day centre but it is possible that these activities are not stimulating enough fo r her. She is a little confused at times about her roles; she behaves as though Thorneycroft staff are her employees and adopts a matron-like attitude with them, which probably  crosses over from her role in her career as a midwife. She can be forgetful but does not have dementia and before moving to Thorneycroft was quite vulnerable as she sees the best in people and was being exploited by people doing odd jobs and coming in and out of her home. Mrs. Oswald appears to be content on the surface, she has started to accept death and talks about it openly. Her remaining family all live some distance away in England but she looks forward to a phonecall from her cousin each evening and seems to take comfort in speaking to him, appearing more settled after their conversations. She has outlived her close family husband and daughters and appears lonely. Mrs. Oswald doesnt talk much about her husband an daughters the way she does about her career, it is possible that talking about them makes her feel sad. As before, Mrs. Oswald has not made friends with other residents of Thorneycroft, though she has made a few friends at the daycentre. She likes to talk and could be encouraged to mix more which would help with her feel ings of loneliness, she never had friends or visitors at home before she came to Thorneycroft as her family all live far away and only visit to attend review meetings every six months. She has not formed close relationships with staff at Thorneycroft, instead, as mentioned before she treats them as her employees. Mrs. Oswald is an articulate and well spoken individual who has come from a middle class background. She appears to be well educated and has had a successful career as a midwife spanning fifty years. She had her daughters when she was young and out of wedlock, as a result they were brought up by her mother and Mrs. Oswald left at sixteen to begin her training as a midwife. Her career was important to her and she concentrated on this, not having any more children and marrying late in life. Her middle class upbringing has followed her through life, and she still takes pride in her appearance and has a strong sense of what she believes to be proper. Her husband and her enjoyed going on cruises and she is well- travelled. She does not attend church services or appear to be religious at all. In order for them to progress successfully through each stage in the life cycle, an individuals needs at each stage must be met. For example, our most basic physical needs are shelter and nourishment, if these needs are not met in the infant stage, potential for development and progression into childhood will be threatened. For each aspect of development, certain needs must be met; Physical The body must be kept fit and healthy through nourishment, shelter from the elements and the cold, excercise and rest. Emotional The need to be loved and to feel love for others. Good self esteem can be established from feeling loved and wanted by others. Social Being able to interact and build relationships with people around you. Cognitive The need for opportunities to learn and develop knowledge and keep the mind active. Cultural Having your values, religion, diet, language etc.(norms) as part of your daily life. In order for me to understand the needs of Mrs. Oswald and to what extent her needs have been met throughout her life, I examined Erik Eriksons theory of eight psychosocial stages. Erikson believed that humans develop through eight predetermined stages (a detailed table of these can be found in appendix 1) and in order to progress successfully through life, we must successfully negotiate each stage and that failure to do so results in mental deficiencies suc h as lack of trust, which will remain with us throughout life (Collin et al., p. 273). Each stage has one positive outcome and one negative outcome, and individuals progress through each life stage with a mixture of both, the differences between positive and negative being a result of the environment the individual is developing in. Mrs. Oswald, as an adolescent, would have experienced role confusion. She was from a middle class background but fell pregnant at a young age, resulting in her being hidden away and her mother raising her children as her own. It would have gone against Mrs. Oswalds role as a respectable young girl to have children at such a young age. She went off to train as a midwife at sixteen and left her family and her daughters behind. She concentrated on her career and appeared not to have any intimacy throughout young adulthood. This was resolved in mature adulthood when Mrs. Oswald got married and enjoyed the intimacy which she had missed out on in young adulthood. She never had any more children but her husband nd her appeared to have a happy life and they enjoyed travelling together. Mrs. Oswald is now in maturity and has begun to talk about death in an accepting way. Her needs may not have been met in the early stages of her life where she did not conform to her role in society and her life lacked intimacy, but later in life she had a successful and satisfying career and a happy marriage. I have used Abraham Maslows Hierarchy of Needs (see appendix 2) to assess how  Mrs. Oswalds needs are being met now. Maslows Hierarchy of Needs starts at the basic physiological needs we need just to stay alive. Once these are made we have a need for safety, then we want love and affection. Within our group we want to have self esteem. Finally we have a need of satisfying our full potential that Maslow calls Self Actualization (Deeper Mind). Maslow believed that ones needs had to be met at each stage of the hierarchy before the needs at the next stage could be attended to. The first category in Maslows hierarchy refers to physiological needs. I believe that most of Mrs. Oswalds needs are being met at this level. She has plenty to eat and drink and since she is mobile she has some level of excercise. She can have fresh air and she has warmth and shelter. However, Mrs. Oswalds need for sleep is not being met at Thorneycroft. She suffers from insomnia which is not helped by the fact that her bed is too small and therefore uncomfortable for her to sleep in. This has resulted in her being reluctant to settle in bed at night at all, so she is losing out on sleep. As a result of all her physiological needs not being met, all of Mrs. Oswalds safety needs are not being met either. Although she has shelter and security at Thorneycroft, the fact that she does not sleep has compromised her safety as she has a tendency to wander around at night time and is prone to falling as her mobility is not great. Mrs. Oswald appears sad that she has outlived her close family and her husband and doesnt speak about them much. She does have some distant family whom she speaks with on the phone every night which brings her some comfort, but she remains distant with others and reluctant to form close relationships with staff or fellow residents. Her need for love and belonging has not been satisfied. In order for Mrs. Oswald to progress and reach self actualisation the care staff at Thorneycroft must work on the needs which are not being met. Getting her a bed which is comfortable for her to sleep in may help her to settle at night and reduce the risk of a fall. She could be encouraged to mix more with fellow residents and form closer relationships with them as well as staff. This will help with Mrs. Oswalds sense of love and belonging and boost her self-esteem which will help her to reach self actualisation. References BBC (2014) BBC News Magazine. [Online] Available from: http://www.bbc.co.uk/news/magazine-23902918 [Accessed 13/11/2014] BINGHAM, E. et al (2009) HNC Social Care for Scotland. 12th Ed. Essex: Heinemann. COLLIN, C. et al (2012) The Psychology Book. London: DK London. MACLEOD, S. (2011) Simply Psychology. [Online] Available form :http://www.simplypsychology.org/Erik-Erikson.html [Accessed 11/11/2014]. NORWOOD, G. (2014) Deeper Mind. [Online] Available from: http://www.deepermind.com/20maslow.htm [Accessed 11/11/2014]

Long-term Effects of an Expanded Cardiac Rehabilitation Program after M

Introduction An acute coronary syndrome is defined as a â€Å"sudden onset of myocardial ischemia which results in myocardial death, that is, a myocardial infarction.† (Citation) A myocardial infarction occurs when the blood flow is reduced in a coronary artery, usually due to excessive plaque, which results in a complete occlusion of the artery. Cardiac rehabilitation is an important aspect of continuity of care after a patient who has recently experienced a myocardial infarction is free of symptoms. A major goal of cardiac rehabilitation is to improve and extend quality of life. Problem Statement The purpose of this study was â€Å"to evaluate whether an expanded cardiac rehabilitation program, intended to alter patient’s lifestyle, could decrease cardiac events as compared to standard cardiac rehabilitation during a five-year period† (Plà ¼ss, et al., 2011). The purpose statement indirectly expressed a relationship between two independent variables and one dependent variable. The two independent variables in this study were an extended cardiac rehabilitation program and a standard cardiac rehabilitation program. The dependent variable was a decrease in cardiovascular events. Review of the Literature Throughout the years, there have been many studies outlining the importance of cardiac rehabilitation and its role in reducing risk factors that predispose individuals to cardiovascular complications. However, these studies and the guidelines previously proposed are mainly based on small studies which included young men with a low risk of experiencing a myocardial infarction. Furthermore, there have been few randomized, controlled studies conducted to evaluate the effects of cardiac rehabilitation on cardiovascular morbidity. According... ...farctions and the risk reduction expressed as HR 0.51 (95% CI 0.31-0.86)† (Plà ¼ss, et al., 2011). The Danrehab study reported similar reduction in the length of stay for patients with heart disease and at high risk for ischemic heart disease. Transferring these findings into nursing practice will provide great benefits. There will be a great reduction in healthcare cost and consumption. Along with, fewer deaths related to cardiovascular events. Patients will be able to live longer, healthier lives. Works Cited Plà ¼ss, C., Billing, E., Held, C., Henriksson, P., Kiessling, A., Karlsson, M., & Wallen, H. (2011). Long-term effects of an expanded cardiac rehabilitation programme after myocardial infarction or coronary artery bypass surgery: a five-year follow-up of a randomized controlled study. Clinical Rehabilitation, 25(1), 79-87. doi:10.1177/0269215510376006

Philips and Matsushita: A New Century, a New Round Essay

Prior to the beginning of the World War II, the Philips organization was in the infancy stages of initiating a movement of technological prowess within the industry’s culture. They assumed the position as number one in the industry, consistently developing new manufacturing plants to keep in stride with innovations in the development of light bulbs because the company only made light bulbs and was not interested in diversification like other industry competitors. Philips also was in the process of converting longstanding plants in order to keep step with production technology. Philips developed its product line in the 1930’s, going from producing light bulbs exclusively, to also producing vacuum tubes, radios and X-ray tubes. But Phillips wanted more; the company did not want to limit itself to Holland. Philips was looking for international expansion. During this time, Holland was a little market because of its lower population as compared to other competitor countries. Because of this, the company figured that exporting a considerable amount of its products in order to generate enough income to maintain the facility making method Philips is using. Philips was then converted into a â€Å"centralized company with decentralized sales and autonomous marketing in 17 countries†. So this now shows that even though Philips is a company domestic to Holland, the majority of its sales come from the exportation of its products to other countries. The marketing, advertising and promotions used for these products now depended on the country the product was being sold in. So their marketing campaign could not be universal. However, Phillips was due to encounter variables that altered the position of the company, said variables proving to be uncontrollable for the company. Political affairs were an integral part in transitioning the Philips into a â€Å"mutli-national† organization. During the Great Depression, many nations implemented trade barriers and tariffs in order to help the domestic  producers and economy. Phillips was able to work around these hindrances by developing and maintaining facility/facilities in the each of the nations/markets they sold their products. The Nazi invasion of 1939 and the ensuing exacting of World War II, assisted Philips in its conclusion to relocate its assets in Ally nations’ economies, specifically the US and England. R&D was moved to England, management to the USA. This caused Philips to rely on the independence and maintenance of the company to national organizations (NOs) since there was such growth in company resources in those area. This proved to be a positive development for Philips, allowing the company to respond to nation-specific situations faster than the competition. . Once the war ended, Philips reaped the benefits of NO operation. Philips could now identify potential threats in a specific country in regards to industry/market and respond via production. Philips was also utilizing there competitive advantage in regards to the NOs in their research departments and their heavy existence in the local markets until the conclusion of the 1960’s. After the 1960’s, Philips competitive advantage became a disadvantage. The NOs became a detriment in that Philips was having difficulty acting in one accord as a company. This lack of organizational harmony made it very hard for Philips to innovate new products, created a lack of economies of sales in regards to production, and hindering the growth of the organization. The NOs started to do things in the best interest of the NO and not in the interest of Philips as a whole organization. Executives were no longer able to govern over the company as a whole, which created a sort of organizational anarchy and order could not be keep for the international company. For instance, Philips was unable to standardize the V2000 videocassette due to organizational disaccord. One part of Philips wanted to utilize larger manufacturing facilities to produce the VHS feeling it to be the most efficient process. NOs, however, were did not want to do this because it would require local plant consolidation. Philips then implemented the Product Division (PDs) in order to rectify the problems the company was having with the NOs, but this was unsuccessful. The company then began to decline because of their inefficiency in providing the consumers with innovative products and the fact that their once competitive  advantage, the NOs, was now a disadvantage because of the lack of control Philips had over them. How did Matsushita succeed in displacing Philips as No. 1? What were its distinctive competencies and incompetencies? Prior to WWII, while Philips was in the process of developing its NOs, Matsushita was in the process of entering the scene. Philips focused solely on light bulbs; in contrast, Matsushita had a wide array of product offerings. With a parallel merger, Matsushita sold upwards to 5000 different products amongst 25000 retailers. These retail outlets furnished Matsushita the opportunity to connect the marketing scheme with the customer response to market trends. Even though Matsushita had a centralized R&D department, the bulk of products were made in PDs. Matsushita’s innovation was minimal, but where they lacked in innovation they made up for it in the expedience in which they got products out into the market. If a market became saturated at the local level, Matsushita strove to expand globally by using international maneuvers. That move proved successful when faced with an unstable and uncertain market. One of the better ideas the company had was to off-shore vital aspects of manufacturing and production to nations with poorer economies, but the higher end products remained domestically produced. To get past controversy from American and European government lobbyist, Matsushita put plants in those nations as well, but the company made sure they had a strong grasp of those plants which varied differently from the approach of competitor Philips. By doing this, the internationally unification of Matsushita remained constant. Subsidiaries were also under the scrutinizing eye of Matsushita. This was accomplished by having subsidiaries assimilate into the Matsushita corporate culture, doing so through training subsidiaries in their management style and networking. Communication was perpetual through the use of phone conversations and faxes; and GM outside of Japan would have to travel to HQ for training in order to ensure the assimilation method used was successful. By doing this, Matsushita was capable to garner cheaper prices for consumers in regards to their products. This helped give them a greater market share  than Philips in the industry. In regards to the color television, â€Å"trade liberalization and lower shipping (Bartlett p.9)†, this helped in the company being able to export abundantly. Another factor that helped Matsushita propel past Philips in the industry was the company’s getting headway in the color television market and its domination of the VCR market. Although Matsushita did not have a strong brand name being relatively new to the industry, it was able to maintain itself through by selling its products through discounters and mass merchandisers. In regards to the VCR market, Matsushita was able to gain full control. Initially the company had its own version of VHS, but in 1975/76 the company decided to give up their own version in order to compete with Sony’s â€Å"Betamax† and JVS’s competing VHS. This garnered in great results, the company manufacturing capacity being 6.8 million units at its peak, because Matsushita’s ability to produce at a greater and faster level than competitors caused them to be the industry leader, causing the competition to seek their VHS format. The downside of this situation was the fact that global control of this extent gives the impression that creativity was halted regarding Matsushita’s products. Operations offshore were not consistent concerning R&D, which showed it to be an addition to the domestic R&D not able to act of its own accord. This was due to the fact that Matsushita had too firm of a grasp over its global operations. American engineers were able to deal with the constraints of this Matsushita, feeling it stifling to their work and hindering their professional development. In an effort to circumvent this issue, Matsushita decided to outsources the company’s innovation, but this did not work. An environmental factor occurred, the collapse of the Japanese economy, which caused this strategy to be abandoned.â€Æ' What do you think of the change each company has made to date – the objectives, the implementation, and the impact? Why is the change so hard for both of them? Even though both companies, Matsushita and Philips, differed greatly in their tactics regarding organizational culture, they both were very conventional. And for a time, both methods were successfully. Initially Philips was industry leader, only to be later topped by Matsushita. Matsushita established a centralized organization domestically and controlled overseas operations and subsidiaries. Conversely, Philips decentralized its company globally and took a hands off approach to managing the NOs until organizational unification proved very hard to accomplish. Then Philips and Matsushita tried to flip management styles, taking notes from one another. Both companies wanted to take the best methods from each other and discard unsuccessful measures that were taken. Electronics covers a vast array of items within that industry, so the best way to handle that market would be a tough centralized organization that encourages innovation of new entrant products and is malleability allows the company to respond to the fluctuation of the demands of markets overseas. Philips went through many different CEO’s and in the 70’s tried to incorporate the top performing plants into the International Production Centers (IPCs), which was designed to supply the vast amount of NOs. This was an unsuccessful endeavor; because the company greatly miscalculated the strength of the NOs. With no clear course for the organization as an international structure, the NOs were still in charge. Going into the 80s, lowering performing plants were shut down by Philips, causing a division of two groups within the company, i.e. core and non-core. In order to rectify the situation, Philips tried to purchase North American Philips Corp, a subsidiary. In the beginning, this was a success. However, profligacy of company resources caused the R&D budget to be reduced by 50% which devastated the company. Products coming out of R&D were no longer good. The 90s saw even more budget reduction, which trickled down to R&D creating a lack of innovation and loss of revenue. If Philips had cut spending in other areas outside of R&D, the company could have been more competitive. This R&D reduction is due large and in part to the fact that the company was decentralized making it very hard to have corporate collaboration, even if by chance an innovative product was developed. Additionally, the changes that the various chairman in the Philips Company made were structural in nature and did not address the organizational process and culture which is at the root to an organizations success. Matsushita was on the opposite side of the spectrum. The organization now bequeathing more power to its overseas subsidiaries, but it didn’t work. The 80s brought about Matsushita’s â€Å"Operation Localization†, giving management in the local market the autonomy to elect which products they felt would do best in their area. Many of the headquarters changed location during this era as well. The 90s saw economic decline in the electronics industry in Japan, creating a vast amount of overhead. Since Matsushita did not have the choice of restricting, plants in Japan began to decline. To rectify this situation and increase sales, Matsushita alter their management style with one that has a little more of a laissez-faire overtone regarding foreign markets. That would help with their issues in innovation in those areas. What overall strategic recommendations would you make to Gerald Kleisterlee? To Eumio Ohtsubo? Gerald Kleisterlee should decentralize Philips as much as possible. The Headquarters in Holland should be relocated and to whichever market is the biggest. By doing this, Philips would be able to more efficiently service the consumer and do so faster. The company also needs to pull more resources to the R&D department. This would help Philips the opportunity to essentially have more innovative product line and to progress past the competition. Eumio Ohtsubo needs to revert back to tried and true methods. A centralized operation with strict control over overseas operation is best suited for Matsushita. Outsourcing R&D was a very good idea for the company and should continue to be explored. And having the ability to get products to the market quickly would enhance the progress of this company. Philips had a multi-domestic strategy. The flaw of this strategy was limited control over NOs and lack of organizational unity. Matsushita had a global strategy. The flaw of this strategy was that the control the company had on foreign operations stifled innovation. Both companies should move towards a transactional strategy. Doing so would overcome both the flaws of lack of  control over NOs and stifled innovation. Bibliography 1.Bartlett, Christopher A. â€Å"Philips versus Matsushita: The Competitive Battle Continues.† Harvard Business School Case 910-410, December 2009. 2.†Life, World, MBA and Universe!: Philips vs Matsushita.† Life, World, MBA and Universe!: Philips vs Matsushita. N.p., n.d. Web. 01 Apr. 2013. 3.Tensa, Greg. â€Å"Phillips Vs Matsushita.† N.p., n.d. Web.

Maulana Abul Kalam Azad

Maulana Abul Kalam Muhiyuddin Ahmed better known as Maulana Azad was born on 11th November, 1888, was a senior Political Leader and Indian Muslim Scholar, freedom fighter, and poetry. He was the first Minister of Education. Maulana Azad was one of the prominent Muslim leaders to support Hindu –Muslim unity and He opposing the partition of India on communal lines. Maulana Azad still remains one of the most important people of communal harmony in modern India. He worked for education and social improvement in India made him and most important impact in guiding India's social and economic development.Maulana Azad can speak Urdu, English, Hindi, Arabic, Bengali and Persian. As indicated by his name, Abul Kalam, which literally means â€Å"lord of dialogue†. He adopted the pen name ‘Azad' as a mark of his mental deliverance from a narrow view of religion and life. For his helpful contribution to the nation, Maulana Abul Kalam Azad was posthumously awarded India's highe st civilian honour, Bharat Ratna in 1992. Azad Started the revolutionary activities restricted to Bihar and Bengal. Within short period, he helped setup secret revolutionary centers in all over north India and mumbai.Most of his revolutionaries were anti-Muslim for the reason people felt that the British Government was using the Muslim community against India's freedom struggle. Azad tried to assure his colleagues that animus and indifference toward the Muslims would only make the way to freedom more difficult. In June 1912, Azad started publication of a journal called Al Hilal (means the Crescent) to increase revolutionary recruits amongst the Muslims. He also participated in Non-Cooperation Movement, Quit India Movement, and Partition of IndiaHe said in his words about citizen â€Å"We must not for a moment forget, it is a birth right of every individual to receive at least the basic education without which he cannot fully discharge his duties as a citizen. † Jawaharlal Neh ru referred to Azad as Mir-i- Karawan(means the caravan leader), â€Å"a very brave and gallant gentleman, a finished product of the culture that, in these days, pertains to few† â€Å"The Emperor of learning† Mahatma Gandhi remarked about Azad counting him as â€Å"a person of the calibre of Plato, Aristotle and Pythagorus. † He died of heart stroke on 22 December 1958

Free Essays on The Fruits Of Love

and raw simplicity in the way he tells his story illustrates his youth and the honesty that comes with it. Everything he says, such as â€Å"The first time I walked with a girl, I was twelve†, is straightforward and simple, much like childhood love. Children tend to have more pure and simple feelings for one another than adults do because their lives are simple and uncomplicated. The tone of the speaker helps the reader comprehend those simple feelings of adolescent love. For his next technique, Gary Soto uses contrasting imagery to portray the feeling of adolescent love. Within the first seven lines of the poem, the narrator tells you that it is a cold, gray December day. The first time the oranges are introduced, the narrator simply tells you that he is â€Å"Weighed down with two oranges in my jacket". The bright image and color of the oranges immediately begins to infuse light, happiness, and love into the scene by contrasting with the cold, frosty December atmosphere. The oranges have the ability to do this because of a connotative connection with the bright color of the oranges and light. Later, the narrator notices that the girl’s porch light is always on despite the weather or the time of day. This image again brings up light that in turn reflects back to the brightness of the oranges. Then the girl appears, â€Å"Pulling at her gloves, face bright with rouge". The brig... Free Essays on The Fruits Of Love Free Essays on The Fruits Of Love The Oranges of Romance Imagine that it is winter and cold outside. Nervous electricity flows around you, and love is a new and exciting experience. In your heart, you feel warmth you have never known before. This is the moment Gary Soto captures in his poem â€Å"Oranges†. The feeling and power of adolescent love is created using tone, contrasting imagery, and symbolism. First, the use of tone in â€Å"Oranges† clearly helps to set the theme of the poem. Children often talk with simple sentences that directly state what happened. The speaker’s choice of words and raw simplicity in the way he tells his story illustrates his youth and the honesty that comes with it. Everything he says, such as â€Å"The first time I walked with a girl, I was twelve†, is straightforward and simple, much like childhood love. Children tend to have more pure and simple feelings for one another than adults do because their lives are simple and uncomplicated. The tone of the speaker helps the reader comprehend those simple feelings of adolescent love. For his next technique, Gary Soto uses contrasting imagery to portray the feeling of adolescent love. Within the first seven lines of the poem, the narrator tells you that it is a cold, gray December day. The first time the oranges are introduced, the narrator simply tells you that he is â€Å"Weighed down with two oranges in my jacket". The bright image and color of the oranges immediately begins to infuse light, happiness, and love into the scene by contrasting with the cold, frosty December atmosphere. The oranges have the ability to do this because of a connotative connection with the bright color of the oranges and light. Later, the narrator notices that the girl’s porch light is always on despite the weather or the time of day. This image again brings up light that in turn reflects back to the brightness of the oranges. Then the girl appears, â€Å"Pulling at her gloves, face bright with rouge". The brig...